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A quick skim of https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palestine_(region) says Palestine was controlled by the Mamluk Sultanate since 1260, then by the Ottomans since 1516. So by "European oppression", is he referring to the brief 1915-1948 period, or the pre-1260 Crusader period, that apparently made all the difference?

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"Centuries of European oppression" is a very easy anti-White dog whistle because it's often fairly accurate, so it's easy to toss it in to bludgeon a person into submission in a discussion. How unfortunate for the commenter that they peppered in the phrase in one of the few contexts where it's not especially accurate.

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