Is that actually true? It sounds like a loophole would be possible: create a shell company that buys the shares instead so you can control the votes that belong to these shares.
If in a trivial example, they buy back all the shares but 1.
Would the person holding that last 1 share have suddenly 100% of Apple?
Yes!
If that shell company would be owned by Apple, it implies the outstanding shareholders would own that company, including all the shares it holds in Apple, too.