I made no statement about "objective" morality. I explained my own morals, and why I'm comfortable encouraging people to blame the wealthy for the harms they perpetuate. Could you please elaborate on how you think this reply is relevant to that?

As slow as it seems to be, my perception is that societal attitudes towards wealth have been shifting over the past few decades. I'm hopeful that one day, the tolerance for their misdeeds continue to dropbenough to inspire progressively more social and legal change, as you suggested.