> That is to say that if you have bought a $1m home in 1948, it will be worth, in average today, taking inflation into account, $1 745 809,82. The same investment in the S&P500 will be worth $74,426,964.60.

Yes, but does this account for the fact that you need to be leveraged at $1 million at margin rates for that period of time? Or is it just looking at the upside of putting a million in the S&P500?

It reminds me of the ole “there are lies, damn lies, and statistics” saying. Without context I’m not sure how much to trust this.