Physicists challenge Google’s ‘quantum advantage’
nature.com
nature.com
"A quantum computer, however, can sidestep the brute-force calculation by simulating the quantum process directly — allowing bosons to interfere and sampling the resulting distribution."
Uhhmmmm... it sounds to me like they are performing an experiment and measuring the results.
It's not a simulation if you actually perform the physical experiment.
This seems a bit like saying "A hurricane will simulate a hurricane better and much faster than a supercomputer".
Umm, true enough, I guess. But can you make a hurricane do anything useful besides just being a hurricane?
A computer is just an experiment, right?
All of the awesome things we build with computers are just propaganda.
A classical computer is more than an experiment. The "just" part of that statement is what matters. Computer implies some degree of generalizability in computing things. If it can only compute one thing, it's at the trivial extreme and would be more logically described in terms of that single things it does. For example a beamsplitter that divides power in half. We call it a beamsplitter, not a classical computer that calculates 1/2 input power.
This talk might enlighten you https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=njwQgz63rIs
Also, did you read to the end? They directly address the issue.
A hurricane's initial conditions cannot be absolutely specified and controlled.
A system of qubits can.
Edit: The research cannot currently control the circuit that defines the wave function evolution (not programmable). But a computation is still being performed. This is a philosophical rabbit hole, though.
I agree, the rabbit hole goes deep.
Some of this historical progression is discussed here https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=njwQgz63rIs
I covered analog computers in school, which as I recall consisted of integrating blocks made with linear circuits. You combine them up as needed to simulate systems of linear differential equations. There was still a degree of programmability in that sense.
The crucial difference here is that we don't have a good evidence that the size of the supercomputer grows exponentially in the size of the hurricane. While, it seems likely [1] that classical computers take exponential time to simulate a BosonSampling computer.
[1] as far as research in the computational complexity in this area has yielded proofs or failed to yield proofs despite trying.
To answer your question:
> Is BosonSampling at least a step toward universal quantum computing? I think so! In 2000, Knill, Laflamme, and Milburn (KLM) famously showed that pure, non-interacting photons, passing through a network of beamsplitters, are capable of universal QC, provided we assume one extra thing: namely, the ability to measure the photons at intermediate times, and change which beamsplitters to apply to the remaining photons depending on the outcome. In other words, “BosonSampling plus adaptive measurements equals universality.” Basically, KLM is the holy grail that experimental optics groups around the world have been working toward for 20 years, with BosonSampling just a more achievable pit stop along the way.
So this is at least possibly on track to universality.
Say the beam splitters can be actuated to different positions and angles automatically via code. Then you can build a general purpose rig, that can be reprogrammed to solve different quantum functions.
Then you can build clones of this rig. And stack them up in racks. And have thousands of racks. Now you have a super quantum computer system.
Then you can begin to miniaturizing the system.
The Chinese quantum supremacy solution only solved one problem. But I would gather that the beam splitters can be modified to solve other quantum functions.
Discussed at the time: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=25296469
A couple weeks later, the authors responded, saying that they’d now verified their results up to n=40, but it burned $400,000 worth of supercomputer time so they decided to stop there. This was by far the most expensive referee report I ever wrote!”
Whoa!
Also good to note is that Kalai casted doubt on the original Google supremacy result. There are now classical algorithms 6 orders of magnitude faster than the Google quantum experiment[3].
1.https://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=5122
2.https://gilkalai.wordpress.com/2020/12/06/photonic-huge-quan...
This article is about an upcoming publication by a team from China and has nothing to do with Google nor it being challenged.
"But some quantum researchers contested the claim, on the grounds that a better classical algorithm that would outperform the quantum one could exist3. And researchers at IBM claimed that its classical supercomputers could in principle already run existing algorithms to do the same calculations in 2.5 days."
I'm not sure what you would change the title to. This one seems to accurately describe the article.
Ironically, this article is from December third, so the Chinese experiment being well known is only because past articles like this!
Secondly it's exciting to see countries around the world do cutting edge research, like Japan bringing back the Ryugu samples.
Thirdly it's HN rules to copy the original article title.
Fourthly "Physicists challenge Google’s ‘quantum advantage’" implies the profession of Physicists are saying Google’s ‘quantum advantage’ is incorrect or something.
1. to engage in competition
2. to dispute the truth or validity of
And the article uses the word in both senses -- the headline is that Chinese physicists are challenging Google in the first sense. But the article body mentions that other researchers have challenged the Google result in the second sense. Overall, it seems like a confusing choice of words by whoever wrote the headline.
Physicists in China challenge Google’s ‘quantum advantage’
But - rightly or wrongly - Google's earlier claim figures heavily in the article also.
It really isn't a big deal, the field is trying to be more welcoming to people. Not sure why this is "insane".
Is the phrase "quantum supremacy" actually unwelcoming? Is it causing harm to people affected by white supremacy? Just because some people imagine a path from "quantum supremacy" to "white supremacy" doesn't mean that it's actually taken in any significant amount.
Now, what's the cost? Political capital has to be spent, drawing down what's available for other initiatives. People who are otherwise sympathetic to the cause are being attacked, or wary of being attacked (c.f. Scott Aaronson's "The Far Right is destroying the world, and the Far Left is blaming me!"). Reputational damage [ed: from pushing through the walrus operator] is reportedly the reason that Guido stepped down as BDFL; it's not a minor concern.
Personally in this case I don't really care one way or the other. Absent evidence I don't think there was any actual harm from the old term, but it not being an established term and being made fun of for being overly grandiose, the cost also seems very low, so meh.
Let's apply the principle of charity and suppose that the signatories of the letter are earnest and acting in good faith. That doesn't mean that anything that follows from those good intentions is itself good. Real harm has been done to good people in the pursuit of those good intentions; see the StackExchange/Monica Cellio drama for an egregious example.
Even assuming good execution, productive discussion requires looking at the putative harm being done by the status quo, the benefit that would come from the change, and the cost (reputational and otherwise). Hardly ever see that.
The Bourne Advantage
Maybe someone can help me here. Wikipedia [1] states this about #P -complete problems:
"A polynomial-time algorithm for solving a #P-complete problem, if it existed, would solve the P versus NP problem by implying that P and NP are equal."
So, would the statement of the article imply that P=NP? That would be quite a big deal, wouldn't it?
Now, the statement talks about #P-hard, wikipedia about #P-complete. Does this make a difference?
This somewhat related physics stackexchange question and various answers came to mind:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/8169/is-analog-q...