By the time the vaccine is available for my kids, hundreds of millions of people will have already been vaccinated, and there will be very extensive safety data. Part of the requirements for emergency use authorization is extensive monitoring of safety, so if there's any problem with one particular vaccine, it will be known by then.
But for the deadly virus you interpret the lack sufficient evidence on children as no risk, for the vaccine as as a sign of risk. How do you justify that inconsistency?
Not the person you're replying to, but looking at similar viruses, there's basically never been a flu-like virus that has no short-term symptoms but serious long-term symptoms, however there have been rushed vaccines that had serious long-term symptoms.
So, like nil then? I still can’t find anything beyond dramatized anecdotes to suggest any special danger beyond what is commensurate with the symptoms.