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In the New York Time's original investigations into the defenses of Joe Biden, they noted that "other Western nations and international lenders" long also were critics Ukrainian prosecutor-general. Why is that? Are they suggesting that Biden simply used their longstanding criticism as a cover for his questionable activity?

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> Why is that?

Isn't that a question the New York Times should have been answering?

I will admit that I haven't been following the Burisma scandal that closely, but the following post [1] provides sufficient evidence to me to believe that it hasn't been reported accurately in the USA.

[1] https://www.moonofalabama.org/2020/10/media-again-falsely-cl...

That is one of so many questions that seems like a higher priority to me than Greenwald's listed questions.

This is sad to me. I appreciated Greenwald's work in bringing Snowden's information to light. Since then, I just don't know.

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