As an aside, can someone explain why a generic "-man" suffix is taken to indicate only the masculine by some people? It's no different than using the masculine for indefinite gender, so why the objections?
As an aside, can someone explain why a generic "-man" suffix is taken to indicate only the masculine by some people? It's no different than using the masculine for indefinite gender, so why the objections?
And 'a hundred years' is not much of a defense. Women couldn't sign a mortgage in the US in the 70's. I imagine folks defended that too - "Its the way we've always done it."
yeah you're going to need to provide a source for such a ridiculous claim. My grandmother has owned her house for much longer than that.
* edit: all you downvoters need to look at the claim being made instead of bringing up different issues. credit cards are not mortgages. "couldn't sign" is not the same as "needed a cosigner" or "discounted rates". the original claim implies that women could not own houses through a bank loan, which is very much false.
Our recently deceased Supreme Court Justice was instrumental in securing that right.
Here's a brief history for the Google-challenged: https://www.directlendingsolutions.com/women_and_credit.htm
there is nothing in your link that says that women couldn't sign a mortgage.
the original claim is that "women couldn't even sign a mortgage in the US until the 70s." this claim is false.
Maybe not mortgages but this article from 2013: https://www.huffpost.com/entry/25-years-since-women-need_b_4... "25 Years Since Women Needed a Male Co-Signer". (Link should end "b_4164299".)
the original claim was "women couldn't even sign a mortgage in the US in the 70s".
that is a false claim.
https://edition.cnn.com/2014/08/07/living/sixties-women-5-th...
Specifically there wasn't a law to prevent it AFAIK, but in practice banks denied women lines of credit without their husband's approval as a course of normal business.
you still have not addressed the claim that "women could not sign mortgages in the 70s"
https://digitalcommons.law.yale.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?refe...
> Part I discusses the extent of discrimination against women in this field. It concluded that such discrimination is wide-spread and takes two forms. First, lenders discount a working wife's income when she applies with her husband for a home mortgage. Second, lenders are less likely to make a loan to a single woman than to a man.
Who cares? Did your ancestors coin the term or something? You can keep writing "salesman" whenever you write things yourself. "Salesperson" doesn't seem at all offensive, and I think it's bizarre to nitpick such a trivial and irrelevant aspect of the article. It reads to me like political virtue-signaling since the article has nothing to do with the gender of the traveling agent.
e: well? he's polynomial