If a suburb or ex-urb's liabilities exceed their assets, weren't they already broke? I'm trying to understand because I don't know a lot about this whole issue. But unless they charge people a whole lot in taxes to live in those areas, I'm not seeing how those places weren't poor in reality from the start? It seems to me those suburbs just managed to have other people pay for their infrastructure and services for so long that they never realized they were broke. But maybe there is some other source of money that they get from somewhere?
Government's job is to provide for its constituents as prescribed by said constituents, not to collect taxes, sit on cash or build things. Being bankrupt or not doesn't really matter any more than it affects the government's ability to carry out the will of the people and if the will of the people is to do nothing then bankruptcy probably won't be much of an impediment.
The new deal is "Don't be poor"
Lot of countries around the world intentionally debase their currency to stay competitive. It's a valid monetary instrument. In the short term, currency debasement would lower the standard of living of Americans, but it would make their labor competitive.