Wouldn't you assume the age-in and age-out are quite similar?
Why would you lean towards assuming it differs by such an astounding amount over a relatively short time period?
Why would you lean towards assuming it differs by such an astounding amount over a relatively short time period?
Pretty much, there seems to be a natural gradient pre-existing, where the age-in group seems to have a much greater natural affinity to be living with their parents even prior to the pandemic. We can all probably generate reasonable hypotheses for that, but that's the root of the mathematical assumptions.
[0] Here's a re-link of what I'm referencing: https://www.pewresearch.org/fact-tank/2020/09/04/a-majority-...