Scientists Settle centuries-old debate on perception
physorg.com
physorg.com
http://books.google.com/books?id=vjYIAAAAQAAJ&dq=essay%2...
> To which purpose I shall here insert a problem of that very ingenious and studious promoter of real knowledge, the learned and worthy Mr. Molineux, which he was pleased to send me in a letter some months since; and it is this: "Suppose a man born blind, and now adult, and taught by his touch to distinguish between a cube and a sphere of the same metal, and nighly of the same bigness, so as to tell, when he felt one and the other, which is the cube which the sphere. Suppose then the cube and sphere placed on a table, and the blind man made to see; quaere, Whether by his sight, before he touched them, he could now distinguish, and tell, which is the globe, which the cube?" To which the acute and judicious proposer answers: "Not. For though he has obtained the experience of, how a globe, how a cube, affects his touch; yet he has not yet attained the experience, that what affects his touch so or so, must affect his sight so or so; or that a protuberant angle in the cube, that pressed his hand unequally, shall appear to his eye as it does in the cube." I agree with this thinking gentleman, whom I am proud to call my friend, in his answer to this his problem; and am of opinion, that the blind man, at first sight, would not be able, with certainty, to say, which was the globe, which the cube, whilst he only saw them; though he could, unerringly, name them by his touch, and certainly distinguish them by the difference of their figures felt.
http://www.nature.com/neuro/journal/vaop/ncurrent/full/nn.27...
I find a study with 5 subjects a bit sparse, but I guess they are quite hard to come by...
Based on what we already know about how the brain works (aka "the prior probabilities") the chances of such an outcome are pretty much insignificant, far lower than a naive sample-based argument that ignores what we already know would show.
because humans are quite diverse
> Is it really plausible that a theoretical person born blind and sighted later in fact can distinguish between the two but we just happened to get unlucky to find the five dunces in the world who can't?
We don't know which percentage of blind people can distinguish objects by sight once they start to see. We don't know if it's all-or-nothing or not.
If half of blinds can, there's still a 3% chance to get the published results from five subjects. If it's 30%, the chances grow to 17%.
Pawan Sinha's test: They took five people who had been blind since birth, performed the surgery to restore the sight, and performed the test which indicated that they could connect the tactile experience with a visual one no better than chance.
It's a very small sample size, to be sure, but to claim "they didn't actually test Molyneux's question at all"? Not sure which part of the article you missed.
I have a variation on the original question. Suppose someone blind has never touched a cube. However, he knows that a cube is an object with 6 sides of equal dimensions and 8 corners. Then his blindness is suddenly cured. If he sees a cube would he be able to associate it with the description of a cube that's already in his head?
They used 20 sets of shape pairs, some examples of which can be seen in the original publication:
http://www.nature.com/neuro/journal/vaop/ncurrent/full/nn.27...