I have also seen this example, where a man blinded by strokes still avoids obstacles and recognizes emotions, without any conscious awareness[1]. Is this the same phenomenon?
In the published article they say that there is no evidence of blindsight. There is whole paragraph named: "No Evidence of Implicit Knowledge Found with Discrimination Tasks."
>Furthermore, we showed that he exhibited chance-level accuracy on two-choice discrimination tasks for these distorted stimuli, suggesting that his deficit did not spare the sorts of implicit knowledge sometimes found in other deficits of visual awareness
I wonder how much of the world I am accurately seeing.
"Sara Ajina, a neuroscientist at the University of Oxford who studies visual awareness deficits such as blindsight—a residual, unconscious “sight” in people with damage to the brain’s visual system..."
From the article, it appears something similar has happened. Corticobasal syndrome potentially killed off some brain cells but not others, leading to damage at some areas but not others.