Edit: I’m not certain off-hand if it was made legal-legal or if Brigham just said it was doctrinal, imagine the effect would be pretty much the same either way at the time.
Edit: I’m not certain off-hand if it was made legal-legal or if Brigham just said it was doctrinal, imagine the effect would be pretty much the same either way at the time.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mormonism_and_slavery
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_slavery_in_Utah
Edit: Slavery was legal in Utah from 1852 until 1862 when it was banned by Congress.
It’s not like there’s an intellectually honest way of getting a ban on slavery from Christian Scripture. Mohamed was over 600 years later and substantially more liberal with regard to slavery than was the norm before him and his religion didn’t ban slavery either. The Abrahamic scriptures aren’t really ambiguous on this. God does not object to slavery as such.
The problem was that they were actively writing new scripture that supposedly had equal (if not more) weight than both the Old and New Testament.