Help me. I’m confused. Is the author saying that 1% of the people who are diagnosed with it will die? (That’s how I read it at first).

Or is he saying that 1% of everyone will die? Maybe that sounds like a dumb question, but I honestly don’t know if everyone is using the term “mortality rate” the way I think of it (which for me, until recently, was the first option above).

I guess I don’t even know if it makes a difference. Won’t we all be exposed to it anyway, if we haven’t already? Some of us may never know if we were, and others (sadly) will know straightaway.

If we can assume that nearly all of the USA (for instance) will be exposed and “catch” it, whether tested positive or not, then is the second version of “mortality rate”, in effect, the same as the first?

I’m only asking because I honestly don’t know and there is so much speculation and confusion out there. Hoping that someone on HN who is much experienced (and maybe in the world of medical stats) can clarify this for me.