Perceptions of musical octaves are learned, not wired in the brain
quantamagazine.org
quantamagazine.org
The paradigm I would have liked to see is where two tones are held constant and the participant moves a third tone to the location that sounds the best or the worst.
It is remarkable work. But I don't believe it. Octaves are just too basic a phenomena to be viewed as a cultural invention.
The fact that those people don't rate consonant chords as more pleasant than dissonant ones is also interesting.
Octaves are consonant or dissonant depending on the timbre of the sound. For sounds produced by harmonic instruments, like a vibrating string or air vibrating inside a long tube, the sound is a superposition of waves whose frequencies are integer multiples of a fundamental frequency. Then, playing two sounds an octave apart will match exactly all these frequencies and it will sound nice. But there are other instruments (not privileged in the western music tradition) whose timbre is not composed of integer multiples of a fundamental frequency; and in these instruments octaves sound very dissonant.
You can argue that the octave is a "basic phenomenon" inasmuch a vibrating string is basic. Yet, from the point of view of a person who uses a synthesizer, the octave has nothing special with respect to other intervals.
I might compare this non-harmonic genre with the artist Sevish, whose work I've enjoyed a great deal. He too tries to step out of the realm of 12-tone equal temperament. Some of his work is quite reminiscent in structure to this gamelan music (e.g. Desert Island Rain). However, he also manages to build melodies and something you could probably call chord progressions (though I wouldn't know), in a new and very foreign musical world (his entire album Harmony Hacker is amazing). Besides the music being amazing, getting used to this new landscape is enjoyable in and of itself.
My point about the drums, though, was more aimed at what scales, chord progressions and melodies might be developed by a species who had as harmonic basis the drum's spectrum of resonant frequencies. We, by comparison, have the integer multiple of some base frequency, the canonical "harmonic sequence", whereas for them it would be quite different: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vibrations_of_a_circular_membr...
I don't think this level of consonance is necessarily something one has to consider as sounding "nice". It could just as well be thought of as sounding "hollow" or "uninteresting" or "weak", compared to more dissonant harmonies.
I have found that the "worst" audible beating has frequencies between 6hz and 20hz. Higher than 20hz you do not perceive it, and lower than about 6hz it becomes an agreeable "tremolo" instead of as annoying beating. Thus, it would seem that when the frequencies of two notes differ between 6 and 20hz you get the worst dissonance possible. When you are in the middle of the scale, this is more or less about a semitone.
So, what are they? I'd like to know.
Pipes and strings are better modelled by a 1D resonator, which is more likely to allow integer overtones - although they can still have inharmonic elements due to stiffness and - in the case of orchestral strings - rotation caused by the scraping bow.
None of which changes the fact that octaves are primary in any instrument which produces a range of pitches with a clear and reasonably sustained fundamental.
In fact researchers rely on the concept of pitch chroma/pitch class to distinguish between absolute frequency. Humans reliably hear the octave/not octave distinction, as do some animals. Obviously the animals aren't musically trained.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5479468/
But it's not enough to say that "octave perceptions are learned." In this experiment it's more likely that octave use is learned in musical contexts.
There's a huge difference between saying that someone can't hear octave relationships at all, and that they can hear them perfectly clearly, they just don't find them culturally relevant - perhaps because their music theory is built on a grid of absolute pitches, and not on a repeating pattern of pitches.
EDIT: Actually adding 23hz is probably way too much for the result not to just sound dissonant.
In my case none of the harmonics are an integer multiple of the perceived overall pitch. And while the waveform will be aperiodic, it shows clear signs (on visual inspection) of similarity at the perceived frequency.
So pianos have at least 2 things working against having perfectly consonant chords.
Similarly, I was once convinced everyone in our jazz-rock band was out of tune after I had experimented with alternative tunings at home the whole day. Yeah, equal temperament is really quite a bit out of tune, but somehow we seem to manage just fine.
For example if you were singing a major second above someone else, and then you had to jump a perfect fifth and they had to jump a major sixth to end up singing in unison. At least one of those intervals is going to be out of tune.
So, one always tries to understand the harmonic function of the choir as a whole in relationship with the structure of the piece. For example, if tension is needed, one can sing even more towards a dissonant diminished fifth. Close harmony is all about that.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TYhPAbsIqA8
So in a choral context, you would typically aim to be in tune with the people singing simultaneously. The root note of each chord is pitched according to equal temperament.
This has its downsides as well. Consider the chord progression Em -> A7: both chords contain the note G, which in the first chord acts as a minor third, and in the second chord as a minor seventh. The minor third should be pitched 16% of a semitone (cents) above equal temperament, and if we're doing really just intonation and pitching minor sevenths as harmonic minor sevenths, the minor seventh should be pitched 31 cents below equal temperament. So consider a voicing where one voice should hold a G across both chords: this means that even though it's singing the "same" note, the voice should drop 47 cents when the chord changes - almost a full quarter tone!
This video from the excellent Voces8 ensemble has an example of how this might sound, at 55:50 (between the first two notes):
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dDXbQ-2_sns
I highly recommend watching the whole thing, it goes into a lot of detail about the practical implications of singing in just intonation. For the problem described above, one solution is to avoid the issue by tuning minor sevenths using equal temperament in tricky cases like this one.
https://images.squarespace-cdn.com/content/v1/5230e9f8e4b06a...
I am skeptical of this. I maintain that 1:2 is special. I would love to find more evidence or resources about this.
https://raw.githack.com/CindyJS/ScaleLab/master/index.html
There's the book by Dave Benson [0] (available online), mostly about the mathematical modeling of instruments, that has a nice ethnomusicological compendium of instruments with weird timbres.
And then there's the infamous book by Sethares [1] that is all about the dependency of harmony on timbre.
[0] https://homepages.abdn.ac.uk/d.j.benson/pages/html/maths-mus...
I will only say that my "bias" got me what I wanted-- evidence about the phenomena! (And thank you for that)
EDIT: Regarding the basis for consonance/dissonance, the mathematical part of it is straightforward. When superposing pure waves of close frequencies you obtain beating (a slow frequency modulation of the amplitude of your sound), and beating does not appear when you superpose pure waves of very different frequencies, regardless of the interval, integer or not. Thus, the only dissonant intervals of pure sinusoidal waves are those that are very close to the unison. If you compound this with the fact that western instruments have harmonic spectra, you see why some intervals are consonant and dissonant: the dissonant intervals are those that have some partials that are close, but not exactly, unison.
Or...the human voice?
That is certainly not the case. The superposition of waves is linear, and waves of separate frequencies do not really "interact" besides being linearly combined. The fact that a waveform is periodic is not perceptible in our ears. We hear the frequencies separately and the ratio between them does not matter.
This is not a theoretical concept, but a physical observation that anybody can check. You can readily try it with a synthesizer. Create two waveforms f(x)=sin(x)+sin(2x) and g(x)=sin(x)+sin((2+e)x) where "e" is a small irrational number. The wave f is periodic and the wave g isn't. They sound just the same: you cannot tell which one is periodic just by hearing them.
Also, cursorily reading a study that contradicts one's preconceptions and going like "nah, my gut feeling doesn't agree with it" is so quintessentially Hacker News ;-)
Alternate title: Tsimané people do not perceive melodic harmonies.
This is also the case for some non-Tsimané people (google Amusia). There could just be a genetic basis here.
For comparison, you'd need a Tsimané child raised in Western culture, or reverse.
We spent several hours arguing whether music theory was a valid field of study or complete bunk until we noticed he didn't perceive melodic harmony at all. It was fun, if exhausting. That person also nailed an amusia test, which makes me suspect there's a separate condition.
Since I only have access to the abstract: How did they argue this in detail? Because that is something that immediately sprung at me. In the process of learning to sing, reproduction of relative intervals is far easier (and much earlier) learned than correct absolute positioning °) which actually takes some effort to train.
And the reasoning in the second paragraph eludes me completely. If I haven't completely misunderstood something, this has nothing to do with absolute pitch, and everything with tonal memory, which - again - won't work if it isn't trained: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tonal_memory
°) EDIT: Apology, the choice of words is actually incorrect. It's still relative, but with reference to the notes heard before, in contrast to the reproduction of intervals where you have your own previous sung note as (control) reference. Simply put: it's much harder to learn to hit the first note (and thus the general pitch) of the sequence correctly than the intervals in the sequence.
As such, I'm a bit skeptical of the method and conclusion of this research. It seems like physics to me, not psychology. Ability to reproduce pitches and intervals does not strike me as entirely related to what they were trying to find out.
How about instead playing different soundbites, of consonant and dissonant pitches, and asking for their opinion in some way? Maybe even allowing the participant to find a relationship by some sliding instrument themself? That would seem more aimed at studying the Tsimané's ability at "perceiving octaves."
Maybe my interpretation of the header and conclusion is wrong. Perhaps the idea is that _some training_ is needed in order to perceive octaves, the same way _some training_ is needed in order to learn how to walk. That I might be able to wrap my head around.
On a different note, people often think of the octave as the most fundamental interval, but the most fundamental is the very same tone twice. Even here people like a little dissonance. Two tones at nearly but not exactly the same pitch will produce a pleasantly shimmering chorus effect.
Anyway music is subjective and there's is no sound that is better than everything else in all respects and contexts.
Well that's just your 2 cents... I mean, 7.85 cents.
We all have comfortable vocal ranges, and I know generally where to start the Star Spangled Banner to hit both the high notes and the low notes, but since I have relative pitch and not perfect pitch, my starting point is still always going to vary within a minor third or so.
Incidentally, I noticed in my college ear training courses that I (I have excellent relative pitch) would routinely score higher than the folks with perfect pitch. There's something about perfect pitch that can be really distracting to musicians for certain exercises, as it's not quite as flexible as relative pitch. So maybe that's related to the Tsimané.
Also, there are aspects of different notes that very much are noticeable in physical reality and don't need to be culturally learned. In an old singing group of mine, we would have fun with a game where we would stand really close to each other, face to face, and sing unison, and then one of us would start to go slightly sharp or flat while the other would try to stay steady. There's an ugly "beating" sensation when this happens that goes away when you come back to unison. It's not just theory, you hear/feel it. That's present to a lesser extent with octaves, and then fifths, through the harmonic sequence.
Those subtleties are of course covered up when you're using separate instruments or timbres, but using different timbres doesn't disprove the underlying presence.
How you construct a more useful set of notes from the harmonic series is arbitrary. The 1.5^12 ~= 2^7 coincidence I note above allows you to construct a scale using octaves and fifths. You can just as easily do it with other similar coincidences, use fifths and fourths instead, etc etc.
Check the smoothness/roughness functions in my blog link - the reason you think e.g. a 3rd sounds as 'right' as a 7th is likely purely cultural. Other cultures have other scales. One of the Indian ragas has over 100 notes.
(I'm aware OP claims it's ALL learned, including the octave, but even if true I don't think that means it's all cultural).
2:1 octave [1]
3:2 perfect fifth [2]
4:3 perfect fourth [3]
[1]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OctaveBecause of consonance/dissonance, on most of our instruments, some of these 12 notes sound better in combination than others.
Imagine you ran a clustering analysis to group the ones that sound better together and ended up with two clusters, a cluster of 5 and a cluster of 7.
The cluster of 7 gives us the name "octave" as musicians double-count the first note when it is repeated at 2x the frequency at the top end of the scale.
That's the TLDR of my jupyter notebook anyway where I try to start with biological principles and deduce the shape of the piano keyboard https://fiftysevendegreesofrad.github.io/JupyterNotes/piano....
So why 8 notes per octave? Well, it's really 12 notes per octave. Maybe think of it as the white and black keys on a piano. 8 white keys gets you back to where you were, but you skipped some black keys along the way. So why 12 notes per octave? Well, that's because (3/2)^12 (1.5 to the 12th power) is almost a power of 2. So if you step up by fifths 12 times, you very nearly land 7 octaves up. Each of the notes you stepped on along the way becomes one of the 12.
Heh, there are also "fourths" at a ratio of 4:3. So music has a "fourth" plus a "fifth" equals an "octave"! It's kind of silly :-)
Anyways, that's the quick version. If you go further down this road, there are "wolf fifths", various tunings with subtle (but perceptible) differences, and you can even find 19 and 31 tone scales. It kind of goes on and on.
Helmholtz hypothesized[1] that the dissonance of a pair of sine wave tones was related to these beats. Slow beats sound like a pleasant vibrato effect. Extremely fast beats are not perceived as beats at all, with only two separate tones heard. Only moderately fast beats sound dissonant.
This was confirmed experimentally[2] by Plomp and Levelt.
Sethares generalized this relationship to arbitrary sounds[3], finding that an amplitude-weighted sum of the consonance of all pairs of partials ("partial" meaning one of the sine waves that forms part of the waveform, as can be found by Fourier transform) well approximated perceived consonance.
Most Western musicals instruments are harmonic or approximately harmonic[4]. They produce a waveform with partials of frequencies that are an integer multiple of the lowest frequency partial (called the "fundamental").
Increasing pitch by an octave doubles the frequency of all partials. An integer multiplied by two is still an integer, so if you play harmonic notes separated by octaves the partials will overlap. All pairs of partials will be either identical or far apart, so none form dissonant beats. This maximizes consonance.
But music with only octave intervals would be very boring, so the octave in standard Western music theory is divided into 12 equal parts. This is an excellent choice for harmonic instruments, because it closely approximates several small-integer ratios. The interval of a "fifth" (actually seven steps away in the octave, but music theory uses strange numbering to simplify playing the most common musical styles) is a frequency ratio of 3:2. This results in half the partials overlapping, and the other half still being positioned so they avoid dissonant beats, so the fifth is also highly consonant.
Wikipedia has a graph comparing equal divisions of the octave with small-integer ratios:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equal_temperament#/media/File:...
You can see that 12 divisions has many useful approximations. It represents a good balance between complexity and musical utility, so I don't think it's surprising that it became the standard.
But note that small-integer ratios are only consonant with harmonic timbres! If the partials are not integer multiples of the fundamental, as is often the case in tuned percussion, you need a different tuning system. Indonesian classical music[5], which makes heavy use of tuned percussion, is famous for this. You can use Sethares' model to generate tuning systems suitable for arbitrary timbres, e.g. https://sethares.engr.wisc.edu/mp3s/morphine_crystal.html
[0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beat_(acoustics)
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sensations_of_Tone
[2] http://www.lifesci.sussex.ac.uk/home/Chris_Darwin/PerMuSo/pd...
[3] https://sethares.engr.wisc.edu/paperspdf/consonance.pdf
Some intervals were more obvious (octave, perfect fifth, major third). Others probably took hundreds or thousands of years to be discovered.
But keep in mind that different cultures used different scales. It wasn't always the same. Some had minor seventh, others major seventh. Mesopotamians used a sharp fourth. This is still visible in different cultures today (blues/rock uses a lot of flat seventh!).
As for "why seven?": Since "mixing" major/minor sevenths/thirds/etc is very dissonant and weird, people ended up having seven notes regardless.
I would say that "note choice" was more cultural, but the options were obviously influenced by the harmonic series. After a while people started seeing patterns and those historical scales converged into the major scale we know today.
Later in the 1500s some geniuses found a way to transpose the scales but still maintain the ratio between notes, but without having to retune the instrument. The trick was to divide the octave in 12 notes but only use seven at a time [3]. It wasn't "perfect" like just intonation [4], but it was in the ballpark. That became the new normal. Equal temperament is not perfectly in tune with the harmonic series, but people got used to it (to the point that just intonation sounds "off" to a lot of musicians).
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Music_of_Mesopotamia
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harmonic_series_(music)
The ear doesn't care too much about which frequencies, but that they are the same ones. That said, an octave is the doubling or halving of those frequencies which we identify as them being the same note. So, I find it very hard to believe what the article is claiming, also because one reason we can listen to music in low quality speakers is that our brain fills in the missing fundamental[0] so the doubling/halving part seems to be integral to our perception. I don't see how such a psychoacoustic effect be trained or be culturally based.
But on the other hand, tuning into a particular division is very hard to get rid of, westerners can't hear scales that have more than 12 semitones, arabic, indian and eastern music in general is like that and to a westerner ear these sound mostly dissonant and you need to spend a lot of time listening to start appreciating the expression.
I'm a musician but I was completely tone-deaf before I started studying, and took me a while to recognise even octaves. In my head it's still the "SomeWHERE Over the Rainbow" interval ¯\_(ツ)_/¯.
Said that, when playing two octaves together vs other intervals it's easy for a layman to notice how in tune and how consonant they are, because of beating.
I think the point was that this beating depends on the timbre of the instruments (e.g., the fact that overtones are integer multiples of the fundamental). For many percussion instruments this is not the case. You can actually shape a collection of bells so that octaves sound very dissonant (lots of beating) while a slightly different interval sounds consonant.
So, basically, we're all talking past each other (again).
This is not a great definition; our understanding of frequencies came well after we were using the concept. The idea of a "string of half the length with the same tension" is much more natural, and is the easiest mechanical analogy. The discovery of this is very natural because you get sympathetic vibrations -- you can feel the other string moving when you get consonance across octaves. It shows up (along with fifths) in most other instruments -- blowing twice as hard in a flute or halving the tube size, or compressing the embouchure in brass instruments.
While I don't think it's intrinsic in the human brain, it is intrinsic in most musical instruments, and it's kind of intrinsic in the way sound works, so it would be very surprising if it didn't feature in the music made by a culture, and thus work its way into the appreciation of music in general. The tests described here are interesting but might just point to the fact that there is less instrumental music (produced or listened to) in this culture than in others.
http://just-tunings.info/learn
I do need to add a section on cultural consonance/dissonance but..
Octaves are not cultural. Resonance is not just an aspect of music or even animals, but literally everything in nature that makes sound. Dropping a rock in water will create sound, and frequencies that resonate with each-other will stick around longer than those that fight, teaching us that these sounds belong together.
An octave is the simplest possible relationship between two frequencies, and it can be heard in almost every natural sound imaginable. We learn they belong together from almost every sound we hear.
As an aside, western tonality uses the twelfth root of 2 because if you just start hammering randomly on those tones, they'll get along extremely well regardless of whatever the biggest bassist vibration is. The big bassy frequency being the one that every other frequency needs to get along with (harder than it sounds). It's sort of a fudgy form of relativity that allows things to vibe together mostly, but not perfectly.
The concept of Octaves (as a lot of concepts in music) comes from physics. Because one of the most basic instruments you can have is a string under tension.
Pluck the string: note
Pluck the same string pinched in the middle: same note one octave higher
Not to mention Note + Note(octave higher) will have the harmonics overlapping, so it will sound better since there won't be any beating.
Unless presence or absence of beating is itself either a thing we learn to detect, or a thing we learn to associate with better-ness or worse-ness, rather than both being innate?
I guess percussion instruments are even more basic. Just a piece of wood or of metal with a random shape. For percussion instruments (unless they are laboriously tuned to be harmonic), the octave is nothing special.
So... it doesn't need to be learned... When you hear a middle A, you're also hearing the A above for sure. And when you hear the A above by itself, you're hearing one part of the A below.
Of course, understanding that what you're hearing is a called an octave is almost certainly learned. But in my experience, any one who is not tone deaf will naturally lower or raise their voice by an octave if you ask them to sing a song 'lower'.
From another view, it may help to think about it like this: Tones have a certain relationship with each other, and we split that into octaves in Western music to keep track of them. Just like the number 9 precedes 10, and 19 precedes 20, 10 and 20 are "the same number" in base 10 since that's where the pattern repeates. We could count in another number system, but the underlying physical truth of the numbers would be the same.
Wanna know why? Our aural circuits have frequency binning, much like an FFT, and they "ring" at certain frequencies, and an octave is either 1/2 or 2x a given frequency/"note". Closer examination of this system under stimulus is what I would consider a gold standard in this field of research. The form of research undertaken in this study suggests many things, and the researchers have chosen a particular conclusion and it's not necessarily indicated by even their own data.
https://www.britannica.com/science/ear/Analysis-of-sound-by-...
Given the current propensity for thinking that frequency detection is pre-cortex (lower level than speech decoding) and available rather early on in the evolutionary chain, I'm going to be interested in physical studies, not social science.
For better and much deeper explanation: 3Blue1Brown: Music And Measure Theory https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cyW5z-M2yzw
If a deep-voiced person and a high-voiced person sing the same tune together (without either straining), then they are singing one (or more) octaves apart.
Assuming they are singing in tune with each other, otherwise it will sound more like Chick Corea demonstrates here: https://youtu.be/yfoxdFHG7Cw?t=371
I don't know if this is an in-born ability or a cultural one, but I can say that I (for one) don't have any perceptual sense of "sameness" in an octave. To me, two keys with the same letter-name on a piano make two different notes, just like any other interval (though I'm not saying that the different intervals don't sound different). This may be a form of amusia, but I enjoy music, sing to myself, recognize melodies, and find the dissonant Happy Birthday in your link unpleasant (all of which contrasts strongly with the forms of amusia I've read about); on the other hand a lot of the things that people say about music don't mean much to me, except that in some cases I have a mathematical understanding which I can't really connect to a perception.
I'm not sure how I feel about the thesis; can children tell if something is twice the size of another or do you need the concept of "two?" I think like other people I initially found this a little unlikely because octaves are innate physical and mathematical properties, but there are tons of physical/mathematical properties that require a lot of study to understand intuitively.
1: an 8-day period of observances beginning with a festival day
2a: a stanza of eight lines : OTTAVA RIMA
b: the first eight lines of an Italian sonnet
3a: a musical interval embracing eight diatonic degrees
b: a tone or note at this interval
c: the harmonic combination of two tones an octave apart
d: the whole series of notes, tones, or digitals comprised within this interval and forming the unit of the modern scale
e: an organ stop giving tones an octave above those corresponding to the keys
4: the interval between two frequencies (as in an electromagnetic spectrum) having a ratio of 2 to 1
5: a group of eight
So maybe everyone's right.
Bit by bit, I'm realising how much of what's taken for granted by practitioners of Western music is in fact learned.
As a concrete example: ever since I was a child, I've heard people speak of major and minor triads as sounding happy or sad. That seems like something that's just obvious to a lot of people. It's never been obvious to me, and it lead me to think I was (at least partially) tone deaf; if I can't even hear something that is (evidently) that obvious to so many people, how can I ever get better at truly listening to music?
Now that I've started ear training, I'm beginning to mentally associate particular sounds with these chord qualities[2] to the point of actually being able to identify them better than a flipped coin would. (Which is a huge milestone for me!)
But it's taken a lot of practise. And I still don't hear them as "happy" and "sad". If I try to listen for "happy" and "sad" chords, I go back to mischaracterising these chord qualities just as much as before. I've simply never learned that association, for whatever reason.
----
It goes on and on: I played a lot of piano (from sheet music) when I was young, and practised the C major scale up and down and up and down, resulting in the interval from the tonic to the major second being etched into my brain very strongly. And I suspect this is what has made it surprisingly hard for me to internally hear a half-step from the tonic. To my brain (before I started ear training), the minimal possible step from the tonic was to the major second. There just weren't any sounds my brain could produce in between.
Learned. With plenty of ear training, I'm now in addition learning to be able to reproduce a minor second too.
Even more speculatively, I've noticed there are some specific half-step intervals I hear as whole steps. These are from E to F, and from B to C. These are half steps, but they are outliers in how often I attempt to classify them as whole steps. I suspect this is because of said C major scale practise: somewhere in the back of my mind, I might associate these tones (in the absolute pitch sense) with steps of the C major scale and therefore think of them as whole steps. I don't have absolute pitch in any useful sense, but it wouldn't surprise me if my brain, somewhere in a back compartment somewhere, has retained the sound of these tones and associated them with adjacent steps in the scale I practised so much.
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Circling back to octaves: Yes, there are physical bases for considering octaves as a special case of some sort, namely that if you strip out the base resonance frequency of one tone on a string or wind instrument, what you're left with are its overtones, which also makes up its octave's frequencies.
But the fact that this relationship is something that makes these tones sound "the same" might very well be learned. The fact that this level of consonance is even desirable might very well be learned. I can picture cultures in which that level of consonance is considered uninteresting, hollow, and weak. Why would one deliberately care to seek something like that?
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[1]: By listening a lot to music that extensively and unpredictably uses the 12 tones of Western music in A440 equal temperament tuning, children can learn to recognise these specific 12 tones in that tuning – but it won't help with any other frequencies!
[2]: I now hear major triads as a combination of hollow and triumphant, and minor triads as fuller and more epic. Some parts of it make sense, others do not.
I completely agree. It's not very difficult to string together minor chords in a way that sounds happy, and descending major chords can easily sound sad. If you just play a major or minor chord, I don't associate it with much of anything happy or sad.
Similarly, a major second is a brighter second than a minor second, etc.
This idea generalises to the idea of modal brightness: modes (scales) with more major / augmented notes are 'brighter' than modes with fewer.
For example, Lydian (with its augmented fourth) is brighter than Ionian (major). Or Dorian (with its major sixth) is brighter than Aeolian.
The brightest (conventional) mode is the sixth mode of harmonic major, which goes: root, augmented 2nd, major 3rd, augmented 4th, augmented 5th, major 6th, major 7th.
The least bright (convential) mode is the seventh mode of harmonic minor, which goes: root, minor 2nd, minor 3rd, diminished 4th, diminished 5th, minor 6th, diminished 7th.