Wouldn't it all depend on the contracts/agreements in place? If Google has a different agreement than Apple, why would the same terms apply?
A hypocritical position would be having users do initial sign-up (including creation of an Apple ID with billing information) in-app on Android.
That can be used against them in an antitrust proceeding...in US courts. I don't know how the EU handles judicial estoppel since AFAIK it's only a feature of the UK-originated common law system.
Apple's more likely to argue "Google's TOS lets us do X, our TOS doesn't" or something along those lines.