This is simply untrue. When you look up the topic on the posession of stolen goods, you'll quickly find out that you have to know that they've been stolen for it to be illegal[1]. If you don't believe me, take a good look at the US law[2]. Notice how it contains the phrase "knowing the same to have been stolen."
[1]: https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/possession_of_stolen_goods
[2]: https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/2315