To clarify, in my metaphor I am comparing the efficiency of labor before and after the industrial revolution. Bangladesh is an industrialized country, so I am not sure I understand your point.
To weave enough cloth to make a single shirt by hand takes orders of magnitude more time than it takes for a loom to produce the same amount of cloth. This is true regardless of what country it happens in and how much the person operating the loom is paid. Yes, the cheap clothes one can buy at H&M, Uniqlo, or Gap are made in Southeast Asia, usually by workers being paid inhumanely low wages. But those clothes are universally made with fabric that is produced by looms and other modern machinery.
My point is just that the volume of clothes produced today (in southeast Asia, for example) would require orders of magnitude more workers to produce in a pre-industrial world.
Despite this massive efficiency jump, there are not less jobs in clothing and fashion related industries; there are more because we wear so much more clothes than we used to.