So I do not understand much about biology but could this effect explain why we seem to have so many people test positive for anti-bodies on COVID-19 tests, compared to other forms of testing?
Likely not, the more likely explanation is asymptomatic cases. There is a possibility of false positives and that could be driven by something like these nonspecific antibodies so that's why I say "likely not" vs "definitely not" and the answer to whether it "could" is yes, but whether it "does" I personally I think asymptomatic cases are the more likely explanation
I don't think CD4 cells are the same as antibodies, right? I assume that when we test for antibodies, we're not testing for CD4 reactivity...
I understood, that the false positive antibodie tests, come from different antibodies against different corona virus or just the flu, because they are too similar.
Only if the person tested is more than 100 years old (ie spanish flu antibodies)
The Spanish flu was a totally different disease though.
That was an influenza virus, this is a coronavirus they are completely different. But to your point, there have been numerous flu pandemics since 1918