I have no medical expertise, but there's something that is confusing me. From what I read, typically, you get the virus, then an opportunistic bacterium gives you pneumonia, and that's what you die from. But this study seems to be saying "someone else found these meds reduced the virus and we didn't". But the meds are more or less antibiotics, aren't they? So could the explanation simply be that while the virus is the same, the bacteria are not, in the two tests?