That...doesn't sound right. I mean, I know I'm not really much of an investor, but my understanding is it works more like this:
If I own 100% of the shares of company A, and the company makes a profit of $100, the company pays a tax on that profit, then has $75 in its bank account.
Separately, when the company reports those earnings, its stock price rises 5%. Now, if I want to realize the value of my stock appreciation, I have to sell shares of stock, which is a completely separate, taxed, transaction.
I can only transfer money from company A's bank account to my own because I own 100% of the shares, and control the entire company. I also know that treating the company like my own personal piggy bank is frowned upon (at least by people with scruples and sense), and the much more reasonable thing to do is have the company pay me a salary out of its profits. Which is another, separate, taxed, transaction. Which also makes perfect sense, because in the general case where I am not the only employee, payroll taxes are a perfectly reasonable thing, and in the more specific case where I am, I'm paying for the protection of having the corporation to take liability.