As a type 1 diabetic, I can confirm that vast quantities of aspartame do not cause my blood sugar to rise.
I'd expect a type 1 diabetic not to see either effect because the system that aspartame wacks out of tune is turned off for them.
I appreciate that I have no actual knowledge on the subject, except that I know the body must have control loops for this stuff and they must be kept in calibration by some mechanism. Probably my model is too simple.
"Tasting sweet food elicits insulin release prior to increasing plasma glucose levels, known as cephalic phase insulin release" https://www.jstage.jst.go.jp/article/biomedres/28/2/28_2_79/...