His quote was something like:
> First we started with 'arrete ca' (stop it),
> then 'te-arr ac', then one guy's gonna say 'te' ..
> surely one day it's gonna be 'et'.
> I swear, if someone says 'et' to me,
> I'll grab his collar and yell 'ARRETE CA' immediately.
I found the rare distance over its own generation priceless.The liaison between the "s" and "a", prononced "za", is incorporated in into the next word before it is inverted.
This makes me very curious -- why does the original vowel of "femme" get changed in the first inversion to "meuf"? Why does the inversion of "meuf" have an extra syllable? Is "feumme" not a possible word?
Is French similar to Spanish? A change in vowel often completely changes the word and makes it incomprehensible.
Aside: if your mother tongue is English and you want to speak to a person whose native tongue is Spanish, concentrate very hard on the correct vowel sounds when speaking Spanish. Vowel fluidity is ingrained into English (especially between dialects), but vowel constancy is ingrained into Spanish (even across countries). If you are speaking English words to a Spanish listener, you can help them by speaking the words with transliterated Spanish vowel sounds from the written words. This is especially useful for the names of celebrities or place names e.g. Michael Jackson is said differently in Spanish. Also Sir Francis Drake is literally Pirate Drake in Spanish.
chèm <- moche (ugly), not to be confused with chanmé <- méchant (bad) (think bad motherfucker), whose ending can't affort to drop.
reuch <- cher (expensive), not to be understood as an anglicism for "rush".
You'd write it cheum (moche => cheu-mo => cheum')
"meuf" was obvious to me but "keuf" never was.
So thank you! You've answered something I was wondering about for more than 20 years now.