But what happens if the virus mutates? Wasn't this the case with the Spanish flu? The first wave, then the mutation from which causes the second wave. Could that potentially occur?
Yes. Although it's important to note that mutation doesn't necessarily imply increased virulence. A blog post from This Week in Virology from a few days ago noted that the SARS epidemic may have actually been blunted due to a mutation it undertook.
I was wondering about. Thinking about what exactly brought Sars under control.