> witness statements submitted to the court by US prosecutors on Saturday argue that Assange does not enjoy First Amendment protections because he is not a US citizen and because the amendment allegedly does not protect speech made outside the United States.

Wouldn't this logic extend to all the other amendments as well? Meaning Assange has no rights, at which points, why even bother with a trial? Just execute him as soon as he touches US soil.

Of course, this logic could be applied to all foreign nationals then.

My only question is, if US rights don't apply to foreign nationals, how come legal restrictions do apply? Can the executive branch just arbitrarily decide which laws apply to a foreign national?