How is this constitutional?
Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.
Edit: reading the article, these people have failed to pay the fines associated with criminal convictions.
They are also held on bail when they cannot afford to pay, this is before found guilty of any crime.
This beggars belief. Can you provide sources or citations. Quick googling finds no references to this absolutely implausible scenario.