The Inverse Square Law (2000)
hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu
hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu
If you built a scale model of the solar system out in the middle of space, would you have the same orbital periods? Like with a scale model of the moon, would a tennis ball sized rock orbit a soccer ball sized rock from a distance of ~25 feet in about a month?
To expand a bit: lowering the masses by so many orders of magnitude would make the allowable range of vectors much more precise, and the degree of perturbation which the system could withstand would be much lower.
I wouldn't expect such a system to be robust with scale-model comets flying around it, for example.
Uranus is "only" about 20 times further from the sun than the earth, which according to the inverse square law means the suns gravity (and light) is 1/400th of what the earth experiences.
But the sun is about 330000 times more massive than the earth, while Uranus is "only" 14 times more massive.
Yes, the sun is surprisingly big indeed, so I can appreciate the reminder, but I’m not entirely sure it’s relevant here how big the sun is relative to the planets?
The surprise I’m talking about comes from the ratio of the sun’s radius to the radius of the orbit, and that applies to an orbiting mass of any size, from Halley’s Comet to Jupiter. What seems surprising to me is not that the sun is large, it’s that it can attract and keep in orbit something that is at a distance 10,000 times it’s radius (that’s Pluto’s aphelion). The distances between the sun & planets is so much mind-bogglingly larger than the sun that when you see the scale of the sun in context, when you compare the size of the sun to the distance between the sun and the earth, the sun looks incredibly tiny... so tiny that it’s hard to imagine how the gravitational influence is keeping the earth in orbit, especially when thinking about the inverse square law.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kepler%27s_laws_of_planetary_m...
For all planets, the ratio of the (cubed) distance from the sun to (squared) period is a constant which only depends on the mass of the sun, regardless of the mass of the planets (all assuming that the sun is far massive than any other planet.)
Yet, since it is a statement of the real world, it can only be validated by experiment and not by a mathematical proof. Trying to contort one's fingers or sticks in various mutually perpendicular orientations isn't satisfactory since we could be limited by lack of imagination of the dexterity of our hands.
The existence of physical phenomena satisfying the inverse square laws is one of those observations which constrains the geometry of the world.
Anyway, Principia Mathematica's big conclusion was that an inverse squared force will result in elliptical orbits.
I guess is there a mathematical difference between a completely continuous and smooth distribution of energy vs. “quantized” energy at large distances?
In the last case---radiation---the photons are on-shell (so you can, for example, count them) and inverse square does degrade when you hit low counts. However, time-averaging restores it on average.
[on-shell] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/On_shell_and_off_shell
But for force laws, having a massless carrier is critical for an inverse-square law. With massive carriers (like the carriers of the weak force, W+Z bosons) the range of the force scales like 1/M; the force law is more like exp(-Mr)/r ---> 1/r as M-->0. The diminishing of the force with exp(-Mr) means flux isn't conserved. (note I worked in units where hbar = 1 = c, so that the W's mass ~= 80 GeV/c^2 corresponds to 1/M << 1 fm)
https://www.quora.com/Is-the-light-from-lasers-reduced-by-th...
ADDED. Yes at distances from the source greater than 3.3 meters
> (...) if you measure the intensity of a beam with a photodiode (say) 1 inch from the laser and then 10 inches from the laser, you will not find 1/100th of the light with your fixed area detector. If you do this same experiment with an incandescent light bulb and make your closest measurement far enough away (much, much greater than the size of the filament), you will observe this square law decrease.
[1] https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/sci.optics/P-8VmDlY4...
The real answer is, as usual, "it's complicated". But not very so.
The beam width is roughly constant with distance close to the focal point, so there the inverse square law does not apply. Far from the focal point, it's the 3D angle that's roughly constant, which means that the law does apply there.
A laser beam has a direction, as such doesn't spread its influence equally in all directions.