I think I did, but I'll be more precise. The first problem is that the FTC is reduced to a tautology. But the more serious problem is that the definite integral is _defined_ via the antiderivative. This is wrong, as the existence of integrable functions without antiderivative shows.
I'm all for simplifying material, and I'm not saying this needs to be a mathematically rigorous treatise, but it should get the basic maths right, because there is already too much confusion out there.
FWIW, I think the FTC is deeply important and used all the time, but the first part of it - the one about writing antiderivatives as integral - could probably be omitted for non-mathematicians.
It would probably enough to establish:
- Here's what differentiation is. Here's some rules.
- The inverse of that is antidifferentiation. You compute it by going in reverse, but note that this is harder than differentiation (which is mechanical)
- Then we have the integral via Riemann sums. Maybe you can show some simple example.
- Now comes the deep result: the integral can be expressed via the antiderivative, if it exists.
You don't have to go into full mathematical detail, but this presentation wouldn't be getting it wrong anymore.