A paradoxical math ratio
mindyourdecisions.com
mindyourdecisions.com
Is it? There's an integral with a 1/x term[1]. How exactly is it surprising that logarithms start showing up? I realise integrating by hand is a pain, but surely it's a good idea to at least think about the integral expression before typing it into Wolfram Alpha. (EDIT: to clarify - the author takes integration for granted, yet is surprised when the integral evaluates to a logarithm; this makes little sense to me, integrating polynomials is the first thing they teach you)
[1] 1/(1-x) is transformed into 1/y in a pretty straightforward substitution. When you do that with our actual integrals, you find yourself with 2 identical integrals, as you well should, given the symmetry. My solution was actually to look at the distribution of breaks already sorted into short & long, which means doing only one of the integrals (short sticks are 0..1/2) and divide by the range, since we're taking an average (i.e. multiply by 2).
"The shorter stick is typically (about) 2/5 the length of the longer stick, but the longer stick is typically much more than 3 times the length of the shorter stick."
To be honest, I can't figure out how to summarize the two results in English correctly (short of saying 'the mean of x/y~=2/5, but the mean of y/x does not exist, where x is the shorter and y the longer length')
So the intuitive answer to the question would require there to exist a "typical" stick. Once you pick one specific stick, of course things work intuitively: the stick's dimensions are x=A, y=B, its shorter/longer ratio is min(A,B)/max(A,B), and its longer/shorter ratio is max(A,B)/min(A,B).
An interesting question might be whether there's a definition of "typical stick" that in any useful way provides the answer that's intuitively wanted here.
But in this case, I would hardly call the counter-intuitiveness "strong."
At the moment, I'm in the middle of writing a dissertation on Nagarjuna-- now, there was a master of paradox-- and I agree completely with you that decent philosophical can change a reader's opinions profoundly. I just don't put Quine into that categorization.
Naturally, YMMV.
To take a trivial example, the mean of 1 and 2 is 3/2, but the mean of 1 and 1/2 is 3/4. It’s easy to see that 3/2 ≠ 4/3. Now let’s try something that pumps the difference up. The mean of 1/1000 and 1 is 1001/2000, about half. On the other hand, the mean of 1000 and 1 is 1001/2, about 500. Clearly 500 is not the reciprocal of 1/2.
In the case where we have the two sticks, the ratio of small to big is going to have to be somewhere between 0 and 1, because we’re taking the mean of a set of numbers between 0 and 1. On the other hand, in the ratio of big to small, we’re taking the mean of a set of numbers between 1 and ∞.
It's basically a longer version of the following trick:
1) Pick a random real number in the range [0, 1]
2) Pick another
3) What is the probability that they are identical?
For another example, see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bertrand_paradox_%28probability...
There is a nice geometrical solution which is described here: http://www.cut-the-knot.org/Curriculum/Probability/TriProbab...