No, it's not the same. It could be stored anonymized, and the de-anonymizing data is somewhere else, and it can ONLY be accessed with a court order. I don't know why my original comment is being downvoted, it's an important distinction.
Edit: stop with the downvotes please. Whether you agree or not, anonymizing something does not always mean it cannot be de-anonymized. And who can do it (and under what circumstances) is important.