With possession laws and statutory rape for example, the liability is that a reasonable person is expected by law to take steps to prevent their posession of co trolled substance or in case of statutory rape to discover the age of their partner. Intent does not need to be proven because the law (controversialy) defines the action to be sufficient proof of criminal intent.
Case in point: a mentally handicapped person or a small child cannot be convicted of these crimes, even under strict liability because they are incapable of criminal intent(and therefore criminal liability). even with intent or strict liability identical to that of a sane reasonable person,their inability to reason sufficiently means their intent is not considered criminal. I say that as argument that if strict liability has nothing to do with intent then inability to reason is irrelevant,because if for example mental handicap exempts a person of strict liability,it is because they are not behaving with reason and awareness of their actions and intent right? Or if someone (say a policeman) throws a bag of cocaine at you and you catch it,are you liable under strict liability? (Not being rhetorical,Honestly curious)
Strict liability does mean intent does not need to be proven but only because the law defines the action sufficient proof of criminal intent. If you can defend against this "proof" ,will you still be liable? I mean, it is my understanding that if you prove someone planted drugs to frame you or that your sexual partner showed fraudulent evidence (fake ID for example) of their age you will not be held liable, is that not the case?