Verbal agreements are very much legally binding, especially if it is in writing (e.g. over email).
I wonder how that applies to embargoes that don't come with formal NDAs or whatever.
What I'm saying is that a verbal agreement is binding if there's an intention to create binding relations, and not binding if there is not that intention.
I think they were referring to the contradiction of "verbal agreement... especially if it's in writing." But yeah, the snarky comment does not help anybody with anything.
A verbal agreement inherently means there's no written agreement. Also, oral = verbal.