For the first time on record, the 400 wealthiest Americans paid a lower tax rate
nytimes.com
nytimes.com
Yeah, nor do most people.
The date he announced that? September 10, 2001. The section of the Pentagon hit? The accounting wing with all the records.
They could have just like not said shit.
It's amazing how often conspiracy theories rely on the Illuminati DMV
EDIT: According to other comments who explained what's wrong, the "facts" are wrong and belong into the realm of "911truther" propaganda.
Pretty much every 9/11 truther cites "facts" but then has trouble when the facts turn out to be not true or are willful, limited misinterpretations of reality.
The NYT article claims that’s the absolute value of cooked assets and liabilities rather than the net amount but in truth it’s misappropriation so many levels deep (and recursive in parts) that you can’t even tell whether dollars are being made or lost. Purposely, I can only presume.
Perhaps if your goal is peace of mind rather than correctness. All crazy things are not necessarily coincidences.
The 10th of September, 2001 was a Monday. What percentage of announcements are delayed until the start of the business week? How close did this particular announcement come to being delayed to Tuesday (in which case it wouldn't have even happened)? There are so many factors that pivot on the most tenuous or whimsical of things that it actually is borderline ridiculous to read too much into any one single aspect of it.
¹ I mean that I don't believe in the average conspiracy, but I love reading about them for the entertainment value
As for what I infer is an implication of the 9/11 attack being motivated by a desire to cover this up, I can't find any reference to the outer ring of the west wing of the Pentagon being "the accounting wing". Even if it were, I can't imagine that we're doing our federal accounting in the 21st Century on paper that's stored only in one central location.
That said, the military is in fact missing a ton of money and is not in compliance with laws that require annual audits of all federal departments. That's a huge problem that should be addressed, but I see no evidence whatsoever that it's in any way related to 9/11.
You don't orchestrate an elaborate cover-up, and also publicly announce the thing you're trying to cover up.
https://www.c-span.org/video/?c4623026/donald-rumsfeld-speec...
https://www.cbsnews.com/news/the-war-on-waste/
https://www.quora.com/What-does-the-missing-3-trillion-dolla...
But the section of the Pentagon that was hit was not the "accounting wing". There is (and was) no "accounting wing". The specific areas that were hit were mostly "Naval Command Center" and "Defense Intelligence Agency", but even then, the area was relatively unoccupied due to renovations that started in 1998.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:FirstFloor_Pentagon_Bodie...
https://media.washingtonpost.com/wp-srv/national/images/pent...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Airlines_Flight_77#Cr...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Pentagon#September_11,_200...
It wasn't "wait, wtf happened to all this money? >:( ".
It was more "ah crap, we didn't do a good job tracking all this money... :*("
The nuance is subtle and easily hand-waved away by truthers, but such is politics.
Or have, or at least have once had, a lucrative side business (military personnel can do this, legally.)
Or have inherited money.
Or have a spouse with a greater income or inheritance.
Or restore cars, such that the market value of their vehicles vastly exceeds the purchase price.
Or purchase cars that have significantly appreciated in value for other reasons (lots of high-end luxury cars that are limited run not only are pricey but limit sales to selected buyers, and the market value of the cars is almost immediately much higher than the purchase price and appreciates rapidly.)
Or a combination of the above.
Of course, it's also possible the general saved up, or made lucky investments, or married into money, or there was an exaggeration or misunderstanding.
seems like a general with a 40 year career who could (and did) save all of his money could have accumulated a few million dollars in cars without very many shenanigans, if that was their sole financial goal in life.
[0]: https://www.navycs.com/charts/2019-military-pay-chart.html
The other thing that can confuse this issue is that Generals and Admirals generally (sorry) keep their titles after retirement. So if you have "Gen. James McClinton" on your board, that doesn't speak to whether or not they're active.
From looking around, it looks like board recruitment efforts toward Admirals and Generals are targeted at those who are retired or nearing retirement: http://blogs.reuters.com/financial-regulatory-forum/2012/01/...
https://ogc.osd.mil/defense_ethics/resource_library/deskbook...
I kind of got the impression that the military isn't seen in that way in the USA and didn't have such a high social status
By no means are officers all from wealthy families, but those folks are definitely over represented.
Of academy, ROTC, OCS, and direct appointment, I'm relatively certain that, unless things have shifted recently, the academies are the least significant source of commissioned officers in the US military overall, rather than the second major entry point.
Relevant Article: https://www.citylab.com/life/2017/09/the-rise-of-public-sect...
What yall think?
> They have constructed a historical database that tracks the tax payments of households at different points along the income spectrum going back to 1913, when the federal income tax began.
It may be reading the book for the full detail on methods and results. I plan to.
A lower tax payment is a different thing.
So, for example, if someone makes most of their money on dividends, then they pay capital gains tax, and it appears like they are unfairly paying a lower rate than everyone else. ...but that's not a fair comparison because it's a different sort of income, with a VASTLY riskier risk profile. Taxing it at the income rate wouldn't make sense.
In the past, in the US, capital gains wasn't taxed at all because it was considered double taxation (since the investment was already taxed). ...and in some other countries, there is no tax on capital gains.
I've seen people claim that country XYZ has higher tax rates than the US, but then when you look closed, they have zero capital gains taxes.
PS: Either lower taxes on capital gains or allowing people to deduct losses is reasonable in the name of risk, but we do both.
Or just use a consumption tax, which is largely the same thing but a lot less complicated.
Yes, I've come to this conclusion too. The long-standing argument that capital gains rates should be low is about what happens, for example, if your gain on an investment exactly matches inflation: you'd pay taxes on it, but you haven't made any profit in real dollars. The right fix for that is not to divide your paper gain by some amount before taxing it; it's to subtract the loss due to inflation. In times of low inflation, as we have now, this won't make much difference, but if inflation picks up again at some point, it will make quite a large difference.
Of course, such a plan raises the question of exactly what inflation estimator one should use. I'm not enough of an expert to have a strong opinion, but the T-bill rate [0] seems like a reasonable first cut, since it's a good estimator for the risk-free rate of return. Paper gains from holding T-bills would thus not be taxed at all.
Whatever the inflation estimator used, the more important (and likely more controversial) aspect of the proposal is that gains beyond that amount be taxed as ordinary income. The argument is one of simple fairness: once the inflation problem is handled, how can one justify doing otherwise?
[0] https://www.investopedia.com/terms/t/treasurybill.asp -- Okay, I see there isn't just one rate, since the rate depends on the maturity interval, but we can go with the highest one, which is the one for the 52-week bill. This creates the oddity that holders of shorter-term bills will actually get a tax credit, but it will be small; I think we can live with this.
This means you don't get an interest free loan from the government to continue to invest in an asset just because you haven't sold yet.
Having the government give people de facto interest free loans of their own money in order to continue to investing it is also optimal anyway, because the government borrows at an interest rate significantly lower than the average market rate of return. They actually come out ahead by lending the money to investors who are then collecting taxable interest on it, because the tax on the interest can be more than the rate the government pays to issue bonds in the meantime, not even counting the overall economic benefit of stimulating investment (i.e. more/better jobs for people who are themselves paying taxes).
One thing that complicates the above is that the US does tend to run a larger deficit than Canada.
Yes, earning the money with labor is vastly riskier. Telling a financial advisor where to put money incurs no risk to your life.
Compare that to being a welder, tree feller, home builder, where your health or life is a daily concern.
I really don't understand why those who go out and work hard every day have to pay more in tax (as a percentage) than those that just sit on the couch and watch their wealth grow.
Ah yes, the riskiest activities of them all: investing in fortune 500, government bonds, index funds and inflating real-estate prices. They all count as capital gains.
RB2 Is the form you fill out if an employer goes bust, to get some cash from the government.
The risk of investing is, in the large, "my £10,000 might be worth £9,500 tomorrow", not "tomorrow I might lose my job through no fault of my own and suddenly have to make a major lifestyle change".
The same thing can be said about every tax ever. Every time you tax money as it changes hands, that same money has changed hands before and was probably taxed then.
We have a marginal tax system so effective rates should be higher for those that make more. Them paying lower tax rates (like Buffet said) is them having more loopholes in the system.
But they don't. That's the point. Your conventional wisdom is wrong.
The USA has a large number of regressive taxes, which tax the poor more heavily than the rich. These have been steadily expanded. And it has one, only one, progressive tax - the federal (not state) income tax - which has been steadily made less progressive in recent years to the point where overall taxation is at best flat and more likely slightly regressive.
The wealthy pay in absolute terms, more dollars, but they pay a lower rate than others.
There's so many technically correct but misleading definitions it's very hard to know what the "real truth" is in these discussions.
However, if you look at the data in this chart, you can see it's not true any longer. The actual combined rate paid by most Americans is between 22-28%. (It's on the lower end for the poorest Americans, and for the wealthiest as well) Fundamentally, the total taxes paid is flat.
I think most people think that the taxes paid chart looks like what it did in the late 70s/early 80s. In that chart, the poorest Americans pay about 20%, and the richest about 45%. That's where we should be, instead of where we are now.
By undisclosed I mean negotiated. When you are trying to get somebody to spend a ton of money to open a business, donate to charity, bring a bunch of jobs, etc is there a negotiation that happens to provide lower tax options to encourage that spending?
As I posted elsewhere in these comments:
Everyone expects a discount on goods and services when purchase in bulk.
Why should taxes be any different?
Some would argue that taxes are different because of the issue of fairness in society, and for the fortunate who have vastly more than needed to survive, more should be expected to help everyone else. This is in the self interest of the wealthy, as economic growth is actually stunted by inequality.
There are other ways to balance fairness other than progressive taxation, but those too are often anathema to ruling economic policy makers.
Perhaps I should have prefaced by previous comment with “playing devils advocate”.
There’s at least one perspective where this makes sense:
Everyone expects a discount on goods and services when purchased in bulk.
Why should tax be abt different?
2011: The rate is mostly flat, especially above the 80-90%ile. The 99.99%ile pays the highest.
2018: The 99.99%ile pays the highest, the Top 400 appear to be paying a lower rate than almost anyone.
Somewhere between 2003 and 2011, the 0-10%ile began paying more than the immediately higher percentiles.
Citation needed. Saying the US has "only one" progressive tax is a bit ridiculous. The income tax is by far the largest tax almost anyone pays. It's certainly the largest tax I, and everyone I know, pay. And that only increases as you get richer.
Correct. Which is why income is such a miniscule fraction of the 1% (and above's) earnings. It's all out there in the open. Pick any CEO in the top-100 corporations. Look at their income. Then look at their overall earnings. The bulk falls under capital gains due to stock. Then there is deferred compensation, where taxes are lowered even MORE if you agree to postpone being paid. There are so many clever ways for the very very rich to avoid taxes it boggles the mind.
So go ahead and keep talking about the income tax, they've got you distracted.
The top is about 3.5 millions people. Being one of the top-100 CEOs is very, very different from being a random one percenter.
Warren Buffet is probably the easiest person to look at here. A quick google says that [0] he made $11m in 2016, and on that he paid $1.85m in federal income tax, and he claims a large portion of the remainder was paid in state tax. Even ignoring his state taxes, yes he paid a marginal rate of 16%, but he still paid more in income tax than the average 1%er's salary. I'm certainly not a right wing advocate, but the spin associated with the "rich are not paying enough tax" doesn't really help the conversation much.
[0] https://fortune.com/2016/10/10/presidential-debate-donald-tr...
The amount he made in 2016 is the point of contention. Sure he made 11m in income, but for that same year, BRK.A increased a staggering 25% in share price. Even if Buffet owns a 1% of BRK.A, that represents a paper gain of 4 Billion dollars.
Now, sure, he might not have sold any stock so that won't count against his capital gains tax, but to me, its a bit deceptive to say that Buffet only made $11M.
(California is not one of those states, due to Proposition 13, which is also very controversial and is argued to be one of the causes of California's rising housing costs)
When it comes to "if the rich are being taxed enough", you bring up a good point - if my home rises in value I pay more - however Buffet makes several billion in paper gains, and his taxes are largely unchanged.
> However, the day Cook was awarded his multi-year payday Apple immediately withheld and sold 656,117 of Cook’s shares to cover his tax bill. All told, Apple sold $70.9 million in Cook’s stock at a price of $108.03, equivalent to or 52.1% of Cook’s total $135 million performance award.
You’re talking about a relatively small number of investors who derive most of their income from capital gains. (Capital gains account for just about 6% of total personal income.) It just so happens that many prominent examples (Trump, Buffet, Romney) happen to fall into that group. But even among CEOs, professional like Jack Welch (who pays over 30%) will take a lot or most of their compensation as ordinary income.
* FICA, which is strongly regressive at the higher end.
* Sales taxes, which are also strongly regressive since (citation needed) the poor likely pay more of their income on taxable goods. ("There's only so much filet mignon you can eat," according to a government professor I once had.)
* Property taxes.
* Fees.
Try sales taxes. The poor aren't excluded from them, yet someone who is poor is far more likely to spend a larger percentage of their income on them than anyone with enough income to save and invest.
The estate tax is very progressive, at 40% for estates over $11.4m, and 0% for estates worth less.
One of the most important things to understand about tax discussions is that there are two broad classes of "rich" -- high paid salaried employees vs. wealthy investors.
When you see claims like "the top 20% of people pay most of the taxes", that's mostly the high paid salaried employees. Cardiologists making six figure salaries pay high tax rates, and there are a lot of doctors and lawyers and engineers in the population, so they pay most of the taxes.
When you see claims about rich people paying low tax rates, that's corporations and wealthy investors hiring accountants to minimize their taxable income.
The distinction is really important because it means the problem isn't marginal rates, it's the complexity of the tax code which allows people with large fortunes to game the system. A simple VAT with some kind of dividend/UBI to make it more progressive would eliminate most of those games. It would also mean that individuals wouldn't have to file tax returns at all, which would save hundreds of millions of man hours every year.
If you have a product that goes from mine to mill to factory to wholesaler to retailer to consumer, the tax is paid five times. But if the same company owns the mine as operates the retail store, it's paid only once.
That's an insurmountable advantage for vertically integrated companies, so no others remain and tax-wise you end up with the same result as sales tax or VAT (i.e. the tax is paid on the total final value) except that you've needlessly destroyed every non-vertically integrated business.
That is the problem that VAT solves, by giving longer supply chains the same tax treatment as vertically integrated corporations.
The difference can be explained by this completely made up example: A steel mill buys iron ore for $1 a kilo and makes steel of that. A nail factory buys steel for $1.50 a kilo and makes nails of that. A distributor buys those nails wholesale for $2 a kilo. A hardware store buys those nails from the wholesaler for $2.50 a kilo. A contractor buys those nails from the hardware store for $3 a kilo. The subcontractor bills $3.50 a kilo for those nails. The general contractor bills you $4 a kilo for those nails.
With VAT you/the general contractor/all businesses involved pay taxes on a total of $4.
With a transaction tax, it would be paid on $17.50.
But the above is a simplified example. In the real world there are probably a lot more businesses (each specializing in their own niche) and therefor transaction involved in getting that nail into your wall.
Because it would seem to me that consumption of low-income earners will trend toward below-the-median while consumption of the wealthy will trend toward above-the-median, giving you an additional handle to make this taxation progressive.
IMHO it’s easier to construct a “fair” tax system on the income side than on the expenditures side, provided you count all income equally. Currently income from labor is usually taxed higher than income from investment, and that’s not fair.
You have a strange life for that to be considered a "tip".
I'm usually ok with the Federal Reserve or Green Peace or Humane Society or whatever.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Distribution_of_the_FairTax_bu...
I don't agree with that definition of "fair", and I think it would further exacerbate wealth inequality.
In effect what they wanted was for their citizens to be able to write off a much higher level of state and local taxes against the Federal tax debt owed. This is how high tax states in turn claw back money their citizens would other pay to the Feds, by being able to write it off Federal taxes State taxes can be increased and the burden passed along.
Not much different than some subsidies that favor wealthy households over all others in the form of "saving the environment". Watch how holier than thou a hand out is defended with to understand how money is given back to those least needing it. I am guilt of accepting the $7500 handout TWICE for EVs. I have always though that it should have been restricted to much less expensive cars to encourage their development but instead the Federal credit has no limit, car price or income level. IF you pay that much Federal Tax you got it back.
So don't just focus on how much the "rich" pay or don't pay, also focus on all the handouts to people with good to great incomes just masked behind feel good names. (education - in particular master and higher degrees is a subsidy to the same)
[0] https://reason.com/2019/10/07/federal-court-rules-against-bl...
I don't think you should feel bad about accepting the EV tax credit. The purpose of that is to help jump-start the industry; restricting it by income level would have diminished the desired effect. I haven't bought an EV (yet), but I'm glad you have.
Here is their title verbatim: > IRS: Sorry, but It’s Just Easier and Cheaper to Audit the Poor
Here is the article's first sentence, verbatim: > The IRS audits the working poor at about the same rate as the wealthiest 1%.
They go on to say this: > ProPublica reported the disproportionate audit focus on lower-income families in April.
Per their own sentence, the poor and rich are audited at the same rate yet they go on to label this "disproportionate". That makes no sense.
Furthermore, they have defined rich and poor in arbitrary ways - the top 1% of taxpayers by income versus EITC recipients. The latter group is 25 million people - 7.6% of the US. So per capita, the "rich" are getting audited more frequently.
They point out that while the rates may be similar, the impact is disproportionate. The rich have the means to hire a tax attorney, probably have a CPA who kept detailed records, etc. EITC recipients don't even know where to start in responding, and as the article indicates, many don't as a result.
Audits are often driven by the type of deduction. Some are hard to get fraudulently (401k deduction) while others are easier (rental income).
A guy pulling in $500k in salary probably shouldn’t be audited, but someone pulling in $20k in adjusted rental income might need to be.
https://projects.propublica.org/graphics/eitc-audit
"As we reported last year, the IRS audits EITC recipients at higher rates than all but the richest Americans, a response to pressure from congressional Republicans to root out incorrect payments of the credit. The study estimates that Humphreys [County, Mississippi], with a median annual household income of just $26,000, is audited at a rate 51 percent higher than Loudoun County, Virginia, which boasts a median income of $130,000, the highest in the country."
The article doesn't define rich as "the top 1% of taxpayers"; it simply notes that EITC recipients are audited more frequently than all but that top 1%.
"The five counties with the highest audit rates are all predominantly African American, rural counties in the Deep South. The audit rate is also very high in South Texas’ largely Hispanic counties and in counties with Native American reservations, such as in South Dakota. Primarily poor, white counties, such as those in eastern Kentucky in Appalachia, also have elevated audit rates.
"The states with the lowest audit rates tend to be home to middle income, largely white populations: places like New Hampshire, Wisconsin and Minnesota. Generally, the IRS audits taxpayers with household income between $50,000 and $100,000 the least."
From the article more directly linked with the clickbaity headline, in fact, that headline is also supported if you keep reading the article:
"On the one hand, the IRS said, auditing poor taxpayers is a lot easier: The agency uses relatively low-level employees to audit returns for low-income taxpayers who claim the earned income tax credit. The audits — of which there were about 380,000 last year, accounting for 39% of the total the IRS conducted — are done by mail and don’t take too much staff time, either. They are 'the most efficient use of available IRS examination resources,' [IRS Commissioner Charles] Rettig’s report says.
"On the other hand, auditing the rich is hard. It takes senior auditors hours upon hours to complete an exam. What’s more, the letter says, 'the rate of attrition is significantly higher among these more experienced examiners.' As a result, the budget cuts have hit this part of the IRS particularly hard."
60% of 1000 is less than 60% of 2 million. The cost/benefit of auditing the poor is likely inverted at a small scale. At a large scale, it's the right call. It makes sense, from a particular point of view.
At least when a wealthy person dies it's easier to count their wealth because there are strong incentives on the parts of the people who stand to inherit their wealth to make sure it's all counted correctly.
And one of their roles is in ensuring the interests of those lower down the income scale (which in this case even includes senior salaried professionals and only moderately successful business owners) such that they do not have an undue burden simply because somebody with far, far greater means has decided to arrange themselves some kind of labyrinthe with the express purpose of ensuring they outwit the rest of society. In this case it of course makes sense to make them feel the burden of their own creation rather than burdening the rest of society with it.
This is not a responsibility of government as described in the constitution the united states.
It's well known that despite the high marginal tax rates of the past, very few people ever paid those. Deductions abound that have since been eliminated.
What you should really look at is real effective tax rates by income level.[1] What you'll find is that the top 1% make 19% of all income, but pay 37% of all taxes, with an average tax rate of 27%.
The bottom 50% earn 11% of all income, but only pay 3% of all taxes, for an effective rate of 3.73%.
Although I suppose showing that the top 1% has 19% of the income while the bottom 50% has 11% of the income does show the vast income discrepancy.
The article appears to be discussing the individual tax rates paid by the wealthiest, not the percentage of total tax paid. Those are two different things.
The GP appears to have introduced the latter statistic, as often happens in this debate, to distract from the actual statistic under discussion.
Therefore, the headline of the article “the rich pay less than than you” is pretty clearly false.
But the observations of the article itself check out. The tax system has gotten radically less progressive over the last 50 years. The argument is over whether or not it should be made more or less progressive given current realities.
People can differ in their opinions on that, but the historical trend is clear as day.
I have no idea what it looks like before 1986.
The stat under discussion in the article is not "share of all taxes", it's effective individual income tax rate by income percentile. The latter has definitely become less progressive over time, as the article makes clear with data.
If "share of all taxes" since taxes is a statistic you think is illustrative of something relevant, notice that since 1980, real family income for the top 5% has dramatically outpaced the median real family income, so it only makes sense that their "share of all taxes" would go up:
https://www.cbpp.org/income-gains-widely-shared-in-early-pos...
https://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2017/11/11/the-tax-foundat...
https://economistsview.typepad.com/economistsview/2008/08/th...
https://www.cbpp.org/research/federal-tax/tax-foundation-fig...
People don't understand that taxes are the only way to make capitalism work overall by making money trickle down to the poorest and into public infra structures and services. All they see is $$ leaving their account.
The article is not very clear on that, and there is nothing to indicate such on the plot itself (which will be taken out-of-context at some point).
But I agree, it probably will be taken out of context and unfortunately not everyone has even a basic understanding of how taxes work.
- They are NOT speaking of the 0.1 %.
- They are speaking of the 0.01%. One person out of 10000. Not multimillionaires. 100 millionaires and billionaires.
There is a very good reason why the tax foundating speaks of the 1% and not of the 0.1% or 0.01% : it is usefull to protect billionaires.
They always say hand wavy stuff about billionaires whenever they get asked about paying for grand projects. But we’ve all seen how that works out in real life every time. I highly doubt that sort of categorization will ever carry over when it matters.
Uh, they don't all do that, so there can't be a reason that they all do. Some of them do, some of them fund tax protest groups that work to shift he tax burden further from the rich to the working class.
2. 0.01% is 32,966 people, not 100
3. There are 585 billionaires in the US [0]
4. Billionaires make up 0.00017% of the population
[0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_the_numbe...
There are over 500 billionaires. My point being that OP's point comes off as an emotional argument as opposed to a data-based one.
Edit: I now understand the OP meant "100-millionairs". Even so, the math is still off. As of 2015 there were ~5000 100-millionaires and billionaires in the US[1]. That's 0.0015% of the population.
[1] https://www.forbes.com/sites/chloesorvino/2015/06/15/5000-u-...
By "100 millionaires" he means hundred-millionaires, that is, people who have one hundred million dollars or more. By "100 millionaires and billionaires", "hundred-millionaires as well as billionaires".
B) The 0.01% is not all billionaires, but they are all extremely high-net-worth individuals. These are people that are not only set for life, but with proper money management and tax planning, could carry on for generations without having to do a lick of work.
So what’s the point? Even confiscatory 100% taxes on billionaires wouldn’t raise much money (about $127 billion per year, compared to the multi-trillion cost of social programs on the table). And getting rid of preferential treatment of capital gains would risk departing from what’s become an international consensus.
I think we need a better reason than "because everyone is doing it" here.
Income taxes aren't on wealth; they're on income.
Billionaires usually own most value in stock (and usually in a company they own or founded). The majority of the Forbes 400 are there due to founding a company that was found so useful to others, that the owner is worth billions.
When they sell ownership they get taxed at very high rates, and this is after their company being taxed (which is simply an income tax on owners, but called corporate tax). If they give the ownership to others (like children), they get taxed.
What about estate taxes?
Say a billionaire is holding 3,412,037 shares of SPY. 0 transactions buying or selling for the full fiscal year. Just dividends being paid out reinvesting. What taxes would this person pay?
If you own an asset that is constantly paying taxes, you have lost that value to taxation. A stock shareholder owns a portion of the company. A stockholder loses value exactly equal to the amount of taxes the corporation paid.
This is why economists have the maxim: "companies don't pay taxes; people pay taxes." This doesn't mean companies don't pay tax; it means every dollar a company pays in tax is a dollar taken from some set of people.
Without corporate taxation, the shareholders would own a company which owns more cash. Academic literature has shown a dollar in cash at a company is worth a dollar in market cap, which is priced into stock values.
Now, depending on how dividends work, the billionaire likely also paid taxes on those, either at cap gains rates (remember, that income was also already taxed at the corporate level) or at personal income levels, depending on whether the dividends are classified as qualified dividends or non-qualified dividends.
Then, when the billionaire dies, the rest gets taxed if he/she passes it own. This rate for a billionaire is currently around 40%, and many states have an inheritance tax on top of that.
So the billionaire does and will pay significant amount of taxes over their lifetime.
The trend is more muted (the poor pay a slightly higher percent of the total), but the rich still pay the majority of taxes and have a much higher effective rate.
And yet, they would have paid a pittance compared to their income (not to mention wealth), and it would absolutely no impact on their purchasing power or lifestyle (where the 10K of the 50K could make the difference between having savings, or having a health operation, or sending the kids to college, and many other important things).
That's how irrelevant and unilluminating is this kind of metric...
My point is that the even the more taxes they pay, they're not enough. They should pay way more than the poor, not merely more.
I don’t see how that’s relevant when the OP already used relative terms.
I can't make the slider go up to 1B in income here (https://smartasset.com/taxes/income-taxes#tvFxGKBdZE), but according to that if you make 10,000,000 in SF, you'll pay $5,207,046 in taxes, so over half. Whereas, matching your statement, you'll pay 10K on 50K, so 1/5. From an income tax perspective, >50% certainly seems significantly larger than 20%.
Of course, this is pure income, so its as if we're talking about an athlete, and things of course change if the capital is not income. Similarly, none of this takes into account sales tax, etc. etc.
Of course, the other key question is what the taxes are for. If the purpose of the tax is to "impact their purchasing power or lifestyle", then I guess until you tax them to the point where they make 40K it will never match the 50K person? If the purpose of the tax on the other hand is to raise revenue for programs then it seems to be quite effective.
In the US, billionaires make just 1.3% of all income. 80% of income is earned by the bottom 99%. Confiscatory taxes would definitely achieve the second purpose, punishing the rich, but would have little effect on how much taxes ordinary people would have to pay to fund government.
Obviously it should do both.
Joking aside, if the purpose is to fund the government as good as you can (that is, societies central pool of resource to be able to produce democratically controlled and publicly available "nice stuff") then it makes sense to take as much as you can from the rich (which can afford it) and a normal amount from the average/poor (which can't afford to pay much).
A tax could be:
1) None. Then a country wouldn't be able to maintain e.g. an army or basic infrastructure, and either the country would be at the mercy of other countries that can, or the majority would be at the mercy of moguls that can afford to pay for those things. Some third world places are close to the latter.
2) Flat ($10K for a lawyer making $2M/year, $10K for a single mother of two juggling 2 jobs and making $40K). Most would agree that's bad.
3) Fixed ratio (e.g. 30% of said lawyer's income, 30% of the income of the single mother of two juggling two jobs). The lawyer is then left with $1.4M, more than enough to live in luxury, pander his kids etc, buy 4 new cars per year, etc, whereas the mother can barely survive and do basic spending or cover an emergency with the $28K that remain. Not sure how you find it, not a big fan.
4) Progressive scale. The government gets more from the lawyer (and as people getting richer) and not a fixed ratio. The reach still keep more than enough to do whatever BS they want (e.g. $2M - 60% is still 800K/year). Plus most of their money is not in income but wealth, and the ultra rich have already hid it through 2000 schemes.
>In the US, billionaires make just 1.3% of all income.
Property beyond a certain level should be taxed way worse than income. It's just hogging resources from society and giving to much power to money-based, as opposed to bloodline based, neo-feudal lords. Let's throw that majority of the wealth that they own into collective infrastructure for that "bottom 99%" (which, after all, earns 80% of income and pays more taxes).
This is an argument for taxing consumption, not wealth.
If I have $100M sitting in a bank account it isn't consuming any resources at all.
For the ultra rich they go to so many channels, as to be effectively removed (else, they'd also be taxed as income to begin with). A deposit in Switzerland or Turks and Caicos doesn't do much good (if anything) to your local economy...
And of course, as a rich person you have all kinds of assets like real estate too...
Real estate is a bit tricky since it can be both consumption and investment. While I'd rather see taxes on imputed rent like they have in some countries to cover the consumption part, property taxes do a pretty good job.
Government exists because of and for society, and the purpose of taxes is to create the greatest net benefit to society.
Taxes are not to punish anyone, they are levied to fund services for society. Determining the optimum rate is complex and open to debate. But fairness is entirely irrelevant to the question. Whether the top marginal rate is 10%, or 90%, it should be whatever maximizes the usefulness to society.
We have a capitalist economic system, and it works pretty well for us, but that doesn't mean anyone has an inherent natural right to their capital. When it comes down it, property rights are all fictitious and exist only because society says it does. It's hardly wrong for society to decide to recoup some of what it has created.
Since I've seen Rayiner argue repeatedly on HN that European-style universal health care is a good idea, it stands to reason that what he's saying is that taxes need to increase across the board, not that any one cohort of payers needs to be shielded from increase.
How about increased wealth taxation on the 1% of earners, and the 0.1% of owners?
I fundamentally disagree with that point. Government exists to protect people and their property. People have a natural right to themselves and to an extent their property - rights do not come from society, rights are internal and society functions to abridge them where beneficial.
Well, your property is not others property. So protecting someone having X property, means disallowing others to use that property.
But what gives you or anybody the right to your property anyway? Aside from papers, which don't mean anything in terms of justice, moral, fairness, etc -- only in terms of legality?
We were all caveman, naked and property less to begin with, so where did your rights to your property began?
Even if you think the current market system is fair, the starting point was not equality + market system, but whatever arrangements happened at a time of colonial plundering (off of native Americans), slavery, when even poor whites and women couldn't vote (the most part of US history), plus feudal arrangements (in most other places).
Even if someone got their current property "fair and square" in 2019 selling stuff at the market, said property got its start (and ended to the people that have it) from conditions that were anything but fair and square - and not even very long ago.
Before the abolition of slavery and universal vote, any kind of property arrangement (and any kind of inheritance and all the second and n-th order property arrangements since them), is unjust and moot.
So, as a member of a society, I don't see why someone should be allowed to own huge amounts of real estate or money...
>rights do not come from society, rights are internal and society functions to abridge them where beneficial.
Internal to what?
If someone has the power they can stomp on all your rights, including your "right to life" (as has happened in history time and again), and they and people would just laugh their asses off when they hear your complaint that you have "internal rights".
You only have rights because society collectively secured those rights, and gave them to its members (and it took lots of fighting to secure them in the first place). Heck, if you were a black person, without Rosa Parks, you might still not have the right to many things. And it wasn't much better for the average white throughout history.
And it wasn't even that it was thought of as injustice. To make such things be thought of as injustice (instead of having justice be whatever the king of lords etc say), also took a lot of fighting and ideological work. You could be killed as a slave that tries to escape, and you wouldn't even be considered just, but just a low-life critical, to the good law abiding citizens...
Nothing comes from nature or "internally".
Ok, so everything else is owned by everyone equally. (It's actually important that these things are all owned in commons rather than unowned.) In a state of nature, you walk over, pick up an apple off the ground. By applying your work to pick up the apple, it is now more your apple than it is other people's. That's where property comes from. An application of personal labor. It gets more complicated from there, but that's the start of it.
>You only have rights because society collectively secured those rights, and gave them to its members (and it took lots of fighting to secure them in the first place). Heck, if you were a black person, without Rosa Parks, you might still not have the right to many things. And it wasn't much better for the average white throughout history.
And it wasn't even that it was thought of as injustice.
More accurately, if you don't have the rights and only have those society gives you, it WASN'T an injustice. That's one of the reasons it is important that you have the rights innately. If you only have what society gives you, then it denying you things is totally within its rights and just.
In a practical sense, you only can exercise those rights society protects (if you want to remain a part of society). That doesn't mean you don't have them, which is why it can be unjust to deny you their use.
The conception of internal rights is one of the big reasons we don't have slavery or serfs anymore. You can laugh at it or say it's unrealistic, but it's surprisingly important that rights come innately rather than from external sources.
Yes.
Though "punish" is an unnecessarily emotional word to use to describe a secondary function of taxation, which is to influence the structure of the economy writ large. It's been mentioned before that high marginal tax rates on top earners were almost never triggered, which is true. Instead of becoming personal income that could be used to wield undue influence on personal whims, wealth created by large enterprises (virtually the only way to accrue billions and billions of dollars of net worth) stayed within those organizations, where it could justifiably be used to raise wages and improve infrastructure, and where whatever use it eventually saw was validated by a support structure of interested parties with real sway.
Yep, and those "deductions" are now referred to as "tax shelters" (post-1986). Basically, high-earners could invest a relatively small amount of capital into a "business" that was certain to generate large tax losses. These were things like llama farms or avocado farms. The entire purpose was to generate deductions, since the capital invested was smaller than the tax losses generated. The "investor" literally didn't care if he ever got his money back, since the deductions alone were worth the "investment".
Pretty much no one paid the highest rates of the past, because people who have that much money are well-advised, and it was very easy to avoid having that much taxable income.
Can you give an example of how that works? As a non-rich person if I invest $100 it seems like the largest taxes I can pay is $100 (100% tax). How do I generate > $100 tax loss for a $100 investment?
The important take away here is that modern legislation dictates much of what our economy looks like. With other tax regulations we would invest completely differently, for better or for worse.
You can depreciate the cost of the alpaca much more quickly than most assets. You can also depreciate related assets - barns, fencing, farm machinery - even if you own these already, as long as you weren't previously using them for business purposes.
You can also deduct your losses against capital gains made elsewhere. And potentially save on property taxes, if your property becomes "agricultural".
Essentially there's a difference between an accounting loss created by depreciation and creative categorisation of spending and/or use of legitimate tax breaks, and a genuine out-of-pocket spending loss created by losing money on an "investment".
Your taxes are calculated on your accounting losses, not on your spending losses. The difference can be written off against taxes due on other income, reducing your final tax bill to zero - without having to spend the full "loss".
This was for the reason that farms sometimes have a large lead time before they're productive and I want to give you the chance of surviving the first few years that weren't productive.
I think this was notorious as a citrus and almond farm thing.
Except for costs that must be capitalized and depreciated/amortized, which includes lots and lots of things (computers, furniture, anything else with a useful life)
And I take with a huge block of salt any tax article with phrases like "These charts don’t tell us whether the top 1 percent contains the same people year after year, experiences a complete turnover annually, or something in between." Good heavens, I hadn't realized that a 100% turnover in the top 1% of earners was possible! Those investments must be doing terribly.
Even income taxes aren't as progressive as you would think, because a large fraction of upper-class wealth comes from dividends and capital gains, which are taxed at a rate below the income of a household earning $78,951 year! The biggest tax deductions are for homeowners (including second homes) and retirement savings, which overwhelmingly go to the wealthy. The idea that the wealthy pay a high tax rate is absurd if you look at the whole picture.
Sounds like you're doing the "pretend SS and medicare don't exist" fudge, right here.
I read the article, in which this expected point is addressed. From TFA:
>They have constructed a historical database that tracks the tax payments of households at different points along the income spectrum going back to 1913, when the federal income tax began.
That is actual payments, not whatever the tax law says should be paid. Did you think academic economists wouldn't address this point?
NB: I'm not saying automation doesn't matter, or that it won't matter going forward. I'm saying that if no automation had happened at all, we'd almost certainly still be in this situation. The bulk of the distribution changes result from human decisions, not tech.
Read the article again carefully, paying attention to the interactive graph, you will notice that it is discussing the change in total effective tax rate, which is why the total tax rate for the super wealthy in 1950 was 70% when the top marginal rate was 91%. Still massively higher than today's effective individual tax rates on the wealthiest.
> What you should really look at is real effective tax rates by income level.[1] What you'll find is that the top 1% make 19% of all income, but pay 37% of all taxes, with an average tax rate of 27%.
That's not the effective individual tax rate at all. That's burden of tax revenue by population income percentile. You appear to be mixing terms.
https://twitter.com/gabriel_zucman/status/118103695973867520...
If we're talking about historical taxes why are we looking at tax rates and not taxes paid? Taxes paid by percentage income would be a huge improvement, and absolute taxes seems like an essential number for this conversation.
I'm stunned when I see things like this associated with major universities and newspapers.
edit: The y-axis also goes from 10-70% instead of 0-100%. So both axes are suspicious and the numbers being presented are known for their inaccuracy.
The common argument is that the 70% rate of the 1950's was never actually paid by anybody and the effective tax rate was much lower. By looking at actual taxes paid that entire argument can be skipped.
Anybody who studies historical taxes professionally should know this, so when they use a worse measure it looks like they're doing so because it fits their narrative.
Playing with the y-axis in this case, doesn't change the shape of the data. It only makes the graph more readable. For example, would you start the y-axis on a graph of global temperature at –273.15°C (absolute zero)?
Second, why should the graph use evenly sized groups? The whole point is to show an outlier in tax data among a small group of people. Using evenly sized groups obscures this point. If a graph of global temperature only displayed in increments of 1000 years, it would likewise obscure the recent impact of human industry on temperature.
Finally, as the article notes, the graph is of actual taxes paid not historical taxes.
If there is any legitimate criticism, it's that the graph probably should have been a bar graph instead so the "top 400" (likely for ergonomics) is less jarring. Also, just saying that the numbers are known for inaccuracy? This is a lazy statement that needs to be backed up.
> This is a lazy statement
Yes it is.
> This is missing what the graph is trying to convey.....It only makes the graph more readable.
The problem is that so many decisions are made trying to tell the right story that eventually the underlying data barely matters at all. If top 400 doesn't work maybe top 100 will, or top 10, or top 1000. If going back to 1950 doesn't work then maybe 1960 or 1940.
If you don't care about things like best practices you can simply choose the shape of the graph you want and go from there. Maybe this time they did it with effective tax rates. It doesn't matter.
I would really like (not intended at HN, it's a general crisis in my life) to read more articles about politics that are neutral and factually oriented. It seems like 90% of the political content I read twists facts and build cheap, cherry-picked arguments to push for their opinions without any scientifical / logical humility (Discussing hypotheses, advancing honest counter arguments...). I am yet to find political writers / journalists raising questions without already knowing the answers to them. Real thinking instead of outrage porn (as another commenter wrote ; I like that expression)
https://www.lesswrong.com/posts/9weLK2AJ9JEt2Tt8f/politics-i...
And politics are increasingly becoming intertwined with identity, which makes it even less cogent.
From Paul Graham's essay about this:
Politics, like religion, is a topic where there's no threshold of expertise for expressing an opinion. All you need is strong convictions.
...I think what religion and politics have in common is that they become part of people's identity, and people can never have a fruitful argument about something that's part of their identity. By definition they're partisan.
The article lists a bunch of facts and numbers, why do you consider it “non-factual”?
Avoiding politicized content is impossible because anything can be politicized. As the above poster here put it, neutral articles effectively means articles whose politics you agree with and/or articles that reinforce the status quo.
Now we can argue about intellectually dishonest articles and ones that bury the lede, but the article in the OP does back up the assertion with data.
You can't have a genuinely neutral political take, obviously, but you can have one which makes a best-effort to honestly understand, present and address the strongest opposing arguments.
The vast, vast majority of political ink spilled these days is just worthless cherry-picking bias-confirming ingroup-good-outgroup-bad let's-all-dunk-on-each-other dreck.
That literally isn't a possibility.
I'm a fan of Shields and Brooks. Mark Shields leans left and David Brooks leans right, but they're balanced and good at sticking to the facts.
Transcripts, podcast, and video available: https://www.pbs.org/newshour/tag/shields-and-brooks
• Capital gains are not inflation-indexed, which is one reason to have a lower rate. Consider three individuals:
* Person A earned $100,000 working at BigCo in 2019
* Person B sold shares in 2019 that were purchased in 2017, for a (LTCG) gain of $100,000
* Person C sold shares in 2019 that were purchased in 1965, for a (LTCG) gain of $100,000
There's essentially no inflation to account for in cases A and B, since all of the relevant transactions happened relatively recently. But what about Person C? The real value of her investment has not increased by $100,000 — it's much less than that because of inflation. So one argument for a lower capital gains rate is to be fairer to people who have held investments a long time.
• Investments are more mobile than wage earners. This is just a fact about the world: I can invest in a different country more easily than I can move to a different country, which leads to "tax competition" for investment income moreso than for wage income. However, this doesn't mean much in the US, where we tax worldwide income (so it doesn't matter where you earn investment income, for the most part).
• Capital gains is "double taxation". It is true that if you tax capital, that is likely post-tax money. That is, it was earned at some time in the past and tax was paid at that time.
There is a notable exception, however: basis step-up at death (inherited assets don't trigger capital gains when passed to heirs. If the total estate is under the current limit, I believe around $10M, then no tax would be paid at all). There are other tax preferences like the primary residence $500k exemption, qualified small business stock exclusion (look it up, startup founders!) that allow people to realize lots of gains without paying any/full tax. There are also less-sexy things like muni bonds.
No, it's a good reason to inflation adjust them; not inflation adjusting them and charging a lower rate means that people who can regularly turn over capital so that there is often very little inflation effect (more common with the really rich) pay low real taxes on income, while people who have a few capital assets that are held a long time for use value and then sell them with little real (but much inflationary) appreciation pay taxes at low rate on the nominal income, but often at a high rate on any real income (or, worse, pay positive taxes with no or negative real income). The two features compound the pro-wealth bias in capital gains policy rather than offsetting to approximate fairness with taxation of other income.
Taxes on income should be blind as to whether it is labor or capital income (including those characterized as “payroll” rather than “income” taxes), and, to smooth irregular income streams (which otherwise have undesirable consequences in a progressive tax system) generous allowances for deferment or unusually high income and advance recognition of income should be made, and basis values, and deferred and advance-recognized income amounts all should be inflation adjusted.
How are electronic records relevant? The information needed is expected, whether records or electronic or not, when doing capital gains now, so there's non rational need for electronic records.
> For other types of assets, the inflation rationale is still a decent reason to have a lower LTCG rate
No, it's not. For the reasons already explained.
But yeah this is one reason why collectibles have a special, higher LTCG rate than securities.
So you already need a receipt or some record with the original purchase price, which probably has a time stamp on it.
The same way you prove cost basis; if you have adequate records of one, you’ll pretty invariably have both.
If lacking transfer documents makes the sale value “all gains”, then the inflation adjustment is irrelevant, since you are adjusting a zero basis value, which is still going to be zero if you do or don't adjust it for inflation, no matter what a amount of inflation has occurred.
The only place where there is even a theoretical problem is where there is proof of basis value but not basis date; this seems extremely improbable to occur in practice.
>it's much less than that because of inflation
Why would you hold an investment for 55 years that isn't beating inflation?
The point is that the inflation is getting taxed also. Say inflation is at 2 percent per year over the period, and it's appreciating at 2 percent more than that annually. Then when you pay taxes, the "capital gain" amount includes both the real appreciation and the inflation. So in this example, half of the putative "gain" is actually inflation.
Is this an issue in practice? Like I get if I have an asset that meets inflation for a decade than I'll lose value through the taxation. But that would be a bad investment, wouldn't it?
For such an in depth example you really missed this.
I make $100,000 in year X. That covers two brackets, and my effective rate is, say, 25% federal.
SO I have 75k left over.
I invest 5k.
It doubles to 10k.
I'm then taxed on the 5k I earned. Not the 5k I invested.
But do go on about double taxation.
Like many HNers, I'm on here in my spare time, while not running my startup or caring for my kids. Please forgive my not including every argument and counter-argument here.
But to reply, if you bought stock on the stock market, then yeah that is double taxed because the corporation also pays tax on their corporate income. We could get into that whole can of worms, but it's frankly too complex and off-topic. The point of my post was to show some common arguments and counter-arguments.
Clearly, this is absurd: it is universally recognized that transactions often create tax events. There's no "double taxation" rule that doesn't allow "the same money" to be taxed twice, it's just we don't tax the same transaction twice.
If you went to a roulette table at a casino, put $5K on black and it hit, you'd owe tax on that $5K because it's just income.
If you bought a company for $5K and then sold it a year later for $10K, its value typically increased because it was doing more business and therefore paying more taxes along the way.
Now, there are of course problems with this. Companies aren't purely valued on post-tax activities. In the event of real estate, it's even less convincing. If a vacation house doubles in value, it's unlikely this was due to the house's post-tax economic activity. So whether or not it's a double taxation is debatable but kind of irrelevant; it's remains a relatively fair way to raise revenue.
Read this: https://www.thebigquestions.com/2010/01/27/a-quick-economics...
(the kool-aid)
That author had to jump through so many hoops to make an argument his chiropractor must be rich. Seriously, that entire article was nonsense from top to bottom.
Double taxation is a standard BS argument too, the whole point of taxation is that govt 'deserves' a cut of the transaction for providing a safe stable environment for economic activity. this whole notion that the moment you got yours, no-one is allowed to touch it anymore is BS, its true for other activities we engage in like sales tax & getting help then why should value gained in stock market be absolved from it?
any activity that we choose to tax less is essentially being promoted so its no wonder that after financial crisis (& even now) most of the 'new money' went back in stock market instead of the real economy. this needs to end. if anything cr*p like HFT should be taxed more to ensure there is less incentive for that kind of skimming over the top.
The vast majority of other income is taxed in the year it is earned, so there is no/minimal inflation.
> if anything cr-p like HFT should be taxed more to ensure there is less incentive for that kind of skimming over the top.
Gains from HFT would not be LTCG (held less than a year), so it would be taxed at ordinary income rates.
but our annual raise are often in line with inflation should they be excluded? what about sales tax, thats directly effected by prices going up, should that be excluded to. and what about the receivers of these payment, its the hotdog I paid for is taxed already then why should the vendor have to pay tax again? there is no end to it. this whole distinction of earned & 'gained' income is farce and created just to favor wealthy class. I home more 'commoners' see that.
> Gains from HFT would not be LTCG (held less than a year), so it would be taxed at ordinary income rates.
that may be, but my argument is that it should be taxed higher not lower for discouraging the activity. and what about the hedge funds clients that primarily benefit from HFT, should they have tax breaks for holding that capital in fund for long term?
This misunderstands the point of indexing gains for inflation, or applying a lower rate to income that is mixed with inflation. The point is that you pay tax on the income in the year it is earned (or soon thereafter). It doesn't matter what the money was earned for, whether you got a raise, or anything else. The point is that it's all money that you just got right now. It's different when you are taxed on a mix of "real" gains (in the economic sense) and inflation.
That's less true if you have hyperinflation, but at normal inflation rates ignoring inflation across the tax year is a pragmatic simplification with modest effect for gains that aren't long-term in nature (which may not exactly coincide with all income not subject to favorable taxation as LTCG.)
"• Capital gains is "double taxation". It is true that if you tax capital, that is likely post-tax money. That is, it was earned at some time in the past and tax was paid at that time."
The "double taxation" argument is false, since it assumes that the entity paying the original tax and the entity paying the second tax are the same entity which is manifestly false. It is also malicious, since it is usually applied to dividends and in so doing converts the investment markets to a zero-sum game.
And let's not forget, taxes are extremely high on everyone. The US Govt spends 38% of all US GDP, currently (recently above 40%!). https://tradingeconomics.com/united-states/government-spendi...
And that's not even including 2nd order effects. When you go to spend it, your costs are much higher because part of what you're paying is someone else's really high tax rates. IE: the plumber has to charge you 300$/hr instead of just 200$/hr.
Money you get from working, from your blood and your sweat should be heavily taxed, but money you're earning just by already having money (whether it's from your work, inherited, donated from family members) shouldn't be taxed as well?
What's the logic here?
Note: I'm not saying changing the tax rate on capital gains wouldn't have an impact on investment patterns. It would.
The crux of our observation is that "we're all getting hosed and you just want to ensure we are getting hosed equally?"
these things can't happen in a vacuum, no matter how much you respect something with the label 'government' on it you do have to factor in what its doing with its passive funding source. Even this article correlates tax policy that benefited the rich with low GDP growth, suggesting that the government would have been a better steward of additional money. It should consider other revenue regimes.
Capital tax is only perpetuated by inequality, as it is a stretch of taxation theory and a mere convenience. The state says "so you want us to take the money now, not gonna say no!" the non-capital class cheers
When a company allocates $100 to its employee, the employee receives $100 of salary, pays $20 of income tax, and ends up with $80.
When a company allocates $100 to its shareholder, it's first considered as profit, so the company pays $20 in corporation tax, the shareholder receives $80 of dividends, pays $16 of dividend tax, and ends up with $66.
When a company has $100 profit but does not distribute any dividends, it has to pays $20 in corporation tax, so the shareholder value increases by $80, so if the shareholder sells the share, he receives $80 of capital gain, pays $16 of dividend tax, and ends up with $66.
So, yes, if the all the tax rates are the same, you actually end up taxing capital more than salaried income, which would be a big incentive against creating your own company.
Now, companies often put all profits into R&D avoiding both dividend tax and corporation tax. Investors are much more willing to value companies based on growth rather than actual dividends.
The point of taxing capital gains lower than income is to encourage the wealthy to invest rather than hoard their wealth. This is good because invested money helps drive economic growth which is usually good for everyone.
There are other arguments for directly taxing wealth, but the one I listed isn't one in my opinion.
That's pretty much bullshit by any reasonable definition of "earnings".
Relevant to the HN crowd, let's take an example of a startup founder who hits a home run and whose equity is eventually worth a billion dollars. The founder's company had multiple funding rounds, and eventually the company had an IPO so the founder could sell his equity on the public markets. The founder will pay low capital gains rates on his stock, with a basis of 0.
At no point did the founder put any cash into the company originally from previous earnings. Instead, all of the financial gains from the equity were as a result of the founder's blood, sweat and tears - what we normally refer to as "working". Surely, of course, the founder had a lot more at risk, but at no point did the founder previously pay a much higher rate on any capital that went into the business.
With regards to fairness, it is inherently unfair to tax someone making $120k/year working a desk job at a higher effective rate someone who inherits $100M and makes all of their income from long term capital gains. The "2nd round of taxation" line are mental gymnastics. It's income. It's just the "haves" trying to push the rules further in their favor.
With regards to systematic results, taxing capital gains at a lower rate than other earned income increases the compound effect of wealth disparity. Those with wealth, whether earned or inherited, are able to keep more of it, than those without. The resulting extreme disparity is fundamentally unhealthy to our society. We are witnessing the symptoms of it now in the rise of nationalist and socialist movements, as the bottom half of this country is looking around wondering why the system isnt working for them.
Why should capital gains be lower?
And lower income earners pay a larger portion of their income to payroll taxes than the highest income earners.
It does address an important point, though: should you pay tax based on where you live, or on where your income comes from? Governments invest a lot in their country, their citizens, education, a healthy market, etc. For foreign companies to profit from that healthy market but not pay taxes there, seems wrong. Similarly, for people to work in a healthy labour market but not pay taxes there seems equally wrong. These things result in a race to bottom to attract rich people and corporations that make their money elsewhere.
Instead, I think it would be better if income and profit were taxed more based on where it comes from, making tax havens irrelevant. But I have no idea how practical that is.
In the 1950s there weren't any alternatives to the US. Europe and Asia were rebuilding from WWII. Central and South America weren't nearly as developed as today. Places like Singapore, Taiwan, and Korea were extremely poor. The english language wasn't as popular internationally. Intercontinental communication was expensive and low bandwidth. Travel was much more expensive. These communication and travel costs made investing in foreign ventures was a very risky endeavor. Nowadays, it costs nothing to video chat with people on the opposite side of the planet. And foreign investments are no longer the crapshoot that they used to be.
It's much, much easier to live and work in a foreign country today. And it's only getting easier as technology improves.
> Governments invest a lot in their country, their citizens, education, a healthy market, etc.
Do they? I find that most people are successful despite governments, not because of them. For example: One of the schools I went to as a child was structurally condemned while I attended it. The water wasn't fluoridated, so my parents had to pay for fluoride pills to protect my teeth. I don't feel beholden to the government I live under anymore than I feel beholden to my employer. My employer has taught me valuable skills, invested in equipment, training, and pays for health care. Does that mean I should pay dividends to them after I leave? I don't think so.
So let the current oligarchs exile themselves and we'll do what we can to make sure no more Bezos are created again.
I wonder if your school situation has to do how schools are funded in the United States in particular. It sounds like your school needs more tax money from richer parts of the country then where you grew up.
>> Governments invest a lot in their country, their citizens, education, a healthy market, etc. > Do they?
They absolutely do. What I've seen of other countries's welfare states is grand.
> I find that most people are successful despite governments, not because of them.
Universal Healthcare. Universal shelter. Public transportation. Environmental protection. Welfare. Universal Education. Massive wealth redistribution. Markets. Most rich countries do these things with the government and are better for it. Huge numbers of Americans are not successful because this country lacks these things, and is actively prevented from having them.
The most important thing, of course, is to eliminate poverty and protect the planet. The next most important thing is destroy oligarch’s power so they don’t continue to jeopardize the most important things. And, practically in a scarcity economy, capture their mis allocated resources for better ends.
Wanting more wealth hoarded by the few is not a good thing to want.
Similarly, roads to get to school, law enforcement keeping the place fairly safe, rather than overrun by roving warlord bands, food standards that ensure corporations aren't selling you poison. I think living is generally better in countries where the government takes good care of these sort of things.
Although I suppose in lawless countries, rich people could just become their own warlord and hire their own army.
Systemically preventing oligarchs and aristocrats from arising in the future is another.
Why? Sure the rich have a lot of money, but there aren’t that many of them.
No it wasn’t. Is there even one historical example of someone paying 70% of their income as tax in 1950? Or was that simply the maximum theoretical income tax rate? That was just the maximum. Nobody paid that so it’s meaningless to compare these two numbers.
This looks like another confirmation-bias article to me.
The US already has a very progressive system. The aim here appears to be: increase govt spending. Okay, the only way to do that (looking at other countries that have high shares of govt spending to GDP) is to reduce, not increase, the progressiveness of the tax system.
The quantum of "taxes were higher in the past" is utterly wrong. They were marginally higher in the past but not by much (the big step change was JFK, then Reagan, then back up through Clinton)...how does the author even think govt gets paid for? Revenues are not swinging wildly all over the place.
If you are worried about middle-class income growth, it is worth asking how their income growth has been so low given that a huge chunk of people pay no tax at all and the middle-class pay substantially less than almost anywhere else. That is the truly concerning thing about progressive tax systems, how do you pay for stuff when most people don't pay tax? And the political response to taxation is always: "someone else will pay for my stuff...someone else!!!".
A global minimum corporation tax rate of 25% is ludicrous. I remember talking to a fund manager who talked regularly to Peter Oppenheimer about Apple's offshore cash...the solution, according to the genius Peter, was just for all the countries in the world to just make their tax systems equal to the US...easy...and then the problem would be solved. What is extraordinary about the charlatanism of the article is that the author actually thinks this view is logical. Apple just believed it so they didn't have to pay tax...but this is apparently someone's logical view...2019
Tangent: the US has gone way down the path of "economics and politics as objective science"...this has led to a host of people battering other people with apparently "logical" but totally impractical "solutions". Common-sense thinking and understanding history (i.e. what people have actually done in similar situations) is useful info that would help here.
How can this be the case if the taxes actually paid (which is what the chart shows), is largely flat across income bands, between about 22 and 28%? Sure, between 1950 and 1980, the system was progressive, but the actual percentage paid by the wealthy has come down over the past 30 years, it's now much much less progressive than it was 50-70 years ago.
Perhaps the book plays some games with what constitute a "tax rate?" For example, if you spend double your income on consumption (not uncommon for low income people, especially those who benefit from programs like EITC and SNAP) and then pay sales tax, you could squint really hard and say that a 10% state sales tax is effectively a 20% income tax. But that's crazy; this number would keep going up the more wealth transfer happens.
Almost half of my salary goes to taxes every paycheck. That’s almost $150,000 I literally never get to see just taken away.
Did you hear about the anti-gun nuns who bought a significant piece of ownership in the gun manufacturers? They have voting rights in those companies, and the manufacturers are slowly being forced to answer to them.
Where things get tricky and shitty (because they heavily lay the criticism on private individuals wanting to keep more of the money they worked for instead of on government not spending so fucking much without pause or careful control) is when you think it's by default somehow whiny to complain that a majority of one's income tax payments that go to a government which inevitably spends the majority of that money on things like the military budget or bureaucratic bloat. Does so much money deserve to go to these things without at least considering the complaints or reasonable debate of tax payers? The Etc etc etc you mention conceals a huge amount of government spending that is validly debatable and shouldn't just automatically be taken as a given because "progress".
I mean, for example, is it unreasonable to ask why an $800+ billion dollar defense budget is necessary for a country neighbored by Canada and Mexico? Is there a real risk that Russia and China will suddenly invade if the U.S doesn't tax its higher income citizens more heavily to pay for that much spending on this huge part of the federal budget? Then of course there's the question of just how much more expensive ensuring even the more "reasonable" basics of public spending that you mentioned is than it could be if there weren't all sorts of known inefficiencies in government services. For example: Federal and state healthcare spending in the U.S is a major part of both state and federal budgets, but how much of it simply gets wasted on terribly administered public health policies?
In basic terms, debates on taxable income also encourage debates on better public spending, and that's not something anyone should dismiss as "privileged whining" if they really think government also needs to be monitored and restricted in how it does things with public money.
I'd love to pay more taxes if the actual so-called "social contract" wasn't something in between a heist and an absolute management mess.
Sounds about right.
Edit: Oops, misread that 150k was before taxes. 150k after taxes should be enough to own a home
Income distributions and costs are very skewed in Bay Area and nominal numbers do not tell nearly the story: https://www.timesheraldonline.com/2019/02/22/in-some-bay-are...
[1]: https://www.investopedia.com/personal-finance/how-much-incom...
And you can’t just say move somewhere else. Anywhere else that offers the same salaries has similar housing costs.
Also financial penalties should be percentages of wealth, not fixed dollar amounts (perhaps with a floor). E.g. fine for littering is 1% wealth.
Year 1: pay taxes on $10K in savings, $100K house.
Year 2: pay taxes on $10K in stocks, $80K house.
Year 3: pay taxes on $20K in stocks, $120K house.
Year 4: pay taxes on $0 in stocks, $100K house.Taxing assets instead of income doesn't magically make investments worthless.
Let's say you invest $1000 in a highly risky stock. It does very well and goes up to $10,000. You haven't sold it, but the government taxes you a wealth tax of 20% so you pay $2,000. The next year it goes down to $1,000 again and you sell it. In terms of actual profit/loss you haven't made or lost any money. However, you've paid twice as much in tax as you originally invested. (Pick any percentage you want as a wealth tax and you run into the same issue.)
Buy at 1K
Sell at 10K
Taxed on 10K
Buy at 10K
Sell at 1K
I understand your concern about volatile assets, but aren't all assets (even currency and gold) risky over a long enough time period? Buy at 1K
Hold while value goes up to 10K
Tax on wealth at 10K
(Next year)
Tax on wealth at 20K
...
(N years later)
Sell at 1K
With a liquid asset like stocks, it is at least possible to pay the tax by selling part of the stock, and you could get a credit in future years for capital losses.But what if the wealth is your elderly mother's home? Or the family farm or small business? It's really hard to sell part of those things to pay a "wealth tax" every year.
I believe the linked data is from before the tax cuts. However, politics/social justice/etc all aside, it makes sense to me systematically that tax cuts affect the rich more than others. Wouldn't the groups paying the most be adjusted the most when a change occurs?
[1] https://taxfoundation.org/summary-latest-federal-income-tax-...
Buying stock on the market is not investing a company, unless the company gets the cash it’s not a capital investment. Buying and selling stock regardless of how long it’s held is not a capital investment. Also the selling of stock should be subject to state sales tax.
The simple fact that your home isn’t consider a capital investment, but a boat is a capital investment is proof that it’s just a tax dodge for the rich.
You can privilege your children with a private education, tuition, etc. You can't leave them any of your wealth.
If your kids are under 18 when you die, then they can receive a dividend but at 18 that ends. Your spouse should be able to take care of themselves, and not rely on your wealth.
No need for any other taxes whatsoever. Am I missing something?
(With generous provisions for advance recognizing income at the taxpayers discretion or for deferring recognition of windfalls that significantly exceed prior income.)
The data in this NYT article comes from research by the same authors as the above paper, which shows the top 1% having maximum effective tax rate over the years of around 45%? Confusing to say the least what is the difference.
That's a great footnote! I had thought of this several years ago and found a paper detailing the finances of the Confederacy, and boy were they ugly! The Civil War could have been won without a land war at all! It would have gone bankrupt either way. It couldn't issue debt and its farming citizens were selling crops to the government at inflated prices, which it was hoping to use and sell. The blockade prevented the selling, and it had limited use.
When I think about it, the union which won learned to resort to sanctions almost exclusively.
They do pay, however, vastly more than you do.
The various governments have somehow managed to brainwash the masses into comparing rates instead of actual amount paid.
Very neat trick of you ask me.
A billionarie made with defense contracts and state expenditures deserves a moral argument. But so does a lowly government employee that provides net negative value and collects a paycheck everymonth.
Secondly, rich people often create network of companies where on company is pending to friend's company and some other friends company is lending to your company - using this, you improve credit score of whole network and you can lend harder public money. Then you can simply use it as leverage, this is creating money from thin air.
> However, despite these high marginal rates, the top 1 percent of taxpayers in the 1950s only paid about 42 percent of their income in taxes.
Today the 1% pay a little over 36% of their income to taxes.
1. https://taxfoundation.org/taxes-on-the-rich-1950s-not-high/
Given that the US is widely acknowledged to be one of the most progressive tax systems in the world, the burden of proof required here is far higher than the article attempts.
"Progressive" is being used here as a technical term with a specific, greed-upon definition[1], not as a description for the leftist political movement that shares the term.
And yes there are lots of objective measures of progressivity: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Progressive_tax#Measuring_prog...
A good, brief, summary is - https://www.washingtonpost.com/news/wonk/wp/2013/04/05/ameri... - and there is also this in the Economist which explains the issues around spending in more detail - https://www.economist.com/united-states/2017/11/23/american-...
Exactly. The US can certainly be considered particularly progressive on some measures, but not all of them. For example, see the linked article.
Yes, it still sounds arbitrary and suspicious. Whiff of p-hackery.
1. http://cepr.net/publications/graphic-economics/income-share-...
Thus, the wealthy should pay more for that protection. In fact, most of what the government does is protect the wealthy from the poor within its borders.
They can open a company, declare expenses and claim a low salary, thet can put the money offshore or on Switzerland, and all those tax-avoiding schemas that are not doable by the common citizen.
There’s a small deduction that’s not indexed to inflation, and you can also deduct any local taxes you might have paid.
Even holidays, there is a whole business of seminars on cruises and exotic locations, people sign the presence sheet and skip classes and declare everything as an expense.
You can pay your Internet, phone, buy coffee machines and coffee, office items and have all that deducted as a company expense.
All of this is pretty significant for most people and would make a huge difference in most people budgets.
I thought those rates referred to income made above different cut offs, not the overall amount of money made...
I could be persuaded to agree to a tax system that doesn't distinguish between any forms of income, as long as the first 50K was tax-free for everyone and steep progressive taxation after that, whether it's earned or unearned income. A bar set such as my 50K example to acknowledge that basic food/shelter only requires so much if you're willing to migrate, and everyone is treated the same- including the wealthy. They don't need more than 50K a year either, they're human too.
No matter how it's done (I won't argue details with anyone because that's not my point here)- the tax burden shouldn't be on the working class. It should be on the investment class.
Ultimately we'll likely need more worldwide government to track and tax these individuals fairly to eliminate tax scams like the Caymans. Without that I doubt any policy matters. Step one to that is publicly funding elections so those same people don't control our governments.
The default and only tax-avoidance policy needs to be the same one that applies to the working class. If you don't like taxes, stop making money.
Actually you are taxed on trades.
https://www.irs.gov/newsroom/four-things-you-should-know-if-...
I don't think wasting billions of dollars is any better.
Inheritance or gifts should absolutely be taxed as income to the person receiving.
The corporate tax hits everyone, and it hasn't "plummeted", it was reduced all at once in one year, to a still extremely high level (from my Canadian perspective).
They go to all this effort to make a case that the effective rates paid by people with extremely high incomes are often slightly lower than those paid by people with still-very-high incomes... then they blame the marginal rate!
This article is a mess, the juxtaposition of excellent, valid observations, and contradictory filler is astonishing.
> In 2016, the top 1 percent of taxpayers accounted for more income taxes paid than the bottom 90 percent combined. The top 1 percent of taxpayers paid roughly $538 billion, or 37.3 percent of all income taxes, while the bottom 90 percent paid about $440 billion, or 30.5 percent of all income taxes.
So all those political ads are now finally true. I guess that's something.
A country shouldn't tax the things it would like to encourage. In this case, that companies re-invest and not pull the funds out to pay investors.
Capital gains tax should probably be mentioned. Why is it a much lower rate than income tax? Why not talk about that?
Strange also that the article doesn't really target one specific part of the tax code - they don't mention any loopholes at all. If they'd like to see a change, name exploits.
The article is outrage porn - not trying to inform, or make a specific change. It's simply trying to get clicks and shares.
It's really a shame to see the new york times go this route.
in these mostly socialist countries, the top income bracket starts much much lower than in the US. these countries tax the middle class and consumption with VAT ranging from 15-21% on consumption. in spain the top bracket starts around 60,000 euros a year and its 45% not including local tax.
these policies and similar ones in other countries in effect keep the rich rich and make it much, much harder for the poor/middle class to move up.
https://www.economist.com/graphic-detail/2018/02/14/american...
The lower capital gains tax is to encourage the things that the economy needs...namely investing in creating and growing companies.
The total income of the top 400 is just 1.3% of total income, so the tax rate on these people is largely irrelevant. The top 1%, who make 20% of all income, do indeed pay higher tax rates than everyone else. Any smaller grouping (billionaires, people making $10 million a year) comprise too small a fraction of the tax base for it to matter. Hell, you could tax the wealth of the top 400 at 100% and it would just pay for a single year of Medicare for All.
Articles like this are political cover for the upper middle class, to shield the fact that the real reason we don’t have European-style social services is that the American middle class pays vastly lower taxes. American corporate taxes and top bracket income taxes are in line with that of countries like Canada, Germany, etc. https://taxfoundation.org/sources-of-government-revenue-oecd... Until the Trump tax cuts, the actual effective corporate tax rate was higher than those countries. For example, New Zealand’s been a media darling recently on the left. But it’s got a 33% top income tax bracket, a lower corporate tax rate than California even after the Trump tax cuts, and no capital gains taxes. What it does have is a significant GST and a top income tax bracket that kicks in at $70,000.
The article paints this narrative about what’s happened since the 70% top tax brackets of the 1940s. That narrative is incorrect, because it ignores that the tax base was narrower. (Many things like corporate expense accounts were not taxed.) In fact the top effective bracket has been remarkably stable at around 40%.
It is also misleading by omission. It dismisses, without any citation, the notion that tax reform has had any effect on economic growth. In fact, the whole developed world has broadened the tax base while cutting rates, especially for businesses. While it’s hard to establish causation, Europe in the 1970s and 1980s, before Reaganism, Thatcherism, and Merkelism, was a lot less economically competitive than it is today. Canada did the same exact thing, under both liberal and conservative administrations. (Trudeau, another media darling, presides over a country with a 33% top income tax bracket and a 16.5% capital gains tax rate).
There is a proven model for how to get the kind of society the New York Times evidently wants. Look to Europe. Deregulate, cut corporate taxes, and make the middle class pay for its own benefits through high sales and social insurance taxes.
People with more resources can hire more professional tax advisers and structure their businesses and returns in more optimal ways than people with less resources.
How much taxes should people pay? If rich people pay should pay more, does that mean more dollars or more %? If they should, can we make them? If we can, will that incentivize them to leave? if they leave, is that a net benefit globally even if it hurts america? is globalization a positive thing, economically? if it is, is there a concurrent reduction in cultural diversity? if there is, is that bad?
do we even need _any_ taxes besides sales tax? how should taxes even be accomplished? queue discussion about big/small government, libertarians vs dems vs reps.
im not even trying. thousands of questions about any small subset of this topic. its almost not even worth talking about in anything less than a doctoral defense, if thats even a big enough stage.
(spoiler: growth tax)
- Wages $4M (Min $38K, Max $375K, Mean $179K) (Excludes FICA and 401(k) contributions.)
- Total income $4.3M (Min $39K, Max $377K, Mean $195K)
- AGI $4.3M (Min $38K, Max $377K, Mean $194K)
- Taxable income $3.4M (Min $26K, Max $325K, Mean $156K)
- Tax $742K (Min $3.8K, Max $81K, Mean $34K)
- Overall effective tax rate (tax/AGI) is 17.4% (Min 5.5%, Max 23%)
Marginal tax bracket has been as low as 15% and as high as 33%. Some specific years:
- In my lowest income year, I had total income of $39K (AGI $38K) and paid $3.8K in taxes (10%).
- In my highest income year, I had total income of $378K (AGI $377K) and paid $81K in taxes (21.6%)
- In my highest tax year, I had total income of $341K (AGI $341K) and paid $76K in taxes (22.3%).
- One year I had total income of $151K (AGI $146K) and paid $14K in taxes (10%).
- Another year I had total income of $127K (AGI $117K) and paid $6.4K in taxes (5.5%).
Married filing jointly for all years. Spouse has had no income since 2000. Two kids since 2003. Since 2004 I've lived in a state which currently has a flat income tax of 5.5%. With SALT, mortgage interest, and charitable contributions, I've itemized every year. Last year it barely made sense to itemize, and this year I'll probably be right on the itemize line again.
Including SALT, I estimate my total effective tax rate at around 30% most years. I'd have to do some math to figure out how much sales and other non-SALT taxes are as a percentage of income.
I'm a tech worker with a CS degree. I've been lucky with my career. One startup I joined circa 2000 made it to an IPO and was acquired by an F100. Another startup I joined was acquired by a public company which itself was acquired by an F100. Salary a few years into my career has been in the $125K - $200K range and bolstered by ISOs, ESPP, and RSUs.
We're fortunate we can accord to put our kids through college. I expect to spend about $150-$200K total for both in a state school.
Tangent:
I would pay more in taxes for a stronger social safety net. Retirement is more than a decade off, but I'm counting on Social Security for 25-50% of our retirement income, and Medicare for health insurance. We'll do fine in retirement, but in retrospect, I wish I had been saving even more each year. Having SS tax uncapped (no wage base) in return for higher payout is a tradeoff I'd make. I don't see any reason to tie SS to wages and not total income (include capital gains and dividends).
In general, I think there's too much reliance on the stock market for retirement. The mishmash of retirement plans we have in the U.S. is crazy. The 401(k) only came about due to some Kodak executives lobbying for a special exemption in the tax code. The deduction limits are arbitrary (why does a 401(k) allow almost 4x the deduction of an IRA). Expecting your average person to save for their own retirement is a lot to ask. My parents certainly never figured it out (both still working in their 70s). "How to save for retirement" wasn't a course I had in school. Even if (say) you're diligent enough to set aside 25% of your income each year into a target retirement fund and retire at 65, how well you do in retirement is still up to the whims of the stock market and how smartly you invested. Because most people don't have significant earnings till later in their careers, compounding isn't as valuable individually as it is collectively. And yet, corporations and governments haven't been reliable guarantors of retirement pensions. I don't really have an answer.
[1] According to https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2019/08/12/upshot/are-yo... if I set the threshold to top 10%.
That would seem to be a violation of the fourteenth amendment (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equal_Protection_Clause) The clause, which took effect in 1868, provides "nor shall any State [...] deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws".
If only they could be bankrupted, now we'd be talking. Except they can't cause, like the rest of the government, they get to suck on the teat of infinite yield: people's taxes.
If you don't want to be banned, you're welcome to email hn@ycombinator.com and give us reason to believe that you'll follow the rules in the future.
Edit: I don't understand the objections to my comment. If you have a problem with the data behind that chart, that's not my problem.
If you object to the usage of the word socialist - that's a common usage, don't be so pedantic.
The whole point of the changes in 86 (aka Reagan tax cuts) was to remove all those deductions/loopholes/shelters in return for a lower nameplate rate. The goal was to clear out bullshit stuff people were doing for tax reasons and replace it with useful economic activity.
In the end when this sort of mentality is allowed to win out, what it leads to is the dissolution of those valuable services these “rich” people provide which made them their wealth in the first place. It’s unfortunate that only AFTER their dissolution, the original proponents of this mentality are the ones that suffer and realize their short sightedness.
And what services did Donald Trump Jr and Ivanka Trump provide the world, or all the other heirs and heiresses of vast fortunes who earned it by virtue of being the scion of someone who actually accomplished something -- or maybe the offspring of the offspring of someone who actually accomplished something?
If making the tax code more progressive is equivalent to "subsidizing the poor at the expense of the rich", does that mean you're saying the current regressive tax laws subsidize the rich at the expense of the poor?
If so, flipping that sounds entirely reasonable to me.