Really good article but I’m unconvinced about those pointer states. The classicly observed values simply have overwhelmingly higher probability.
I would like to write down what I considered to be the standard motivation for why the classical solution arises, which is in other words why it is more probable, as you point out.
In the Feynman path integral formalism, any paths in the system is possible, with an amplitude proprotional to the exponential of the action. (Action as in a Lagrangian). For paths that are an extremum of the action, there is the least destructive interference between neighboring paths, since there is the smallest phase change between these neighboring paths. Of course this extremum of the action is, not coincidentally, the classical solution, which is the result from the lagrangian formulation of classical machanics.