Why is it not unconstitutional in the US to disenfranchise those with a criminal record who have served out their sentence?
Unfortunately, many less serious offences have been classified as more serious in order to be "hard on crime" leading to many generally trustworthy citizens losing rights.
Also, the Constitution doesn't explicitly state that citizens shall maintain or regain voting rights after having served their time, nor does it forbid disenfranchisement of voting rights, so the power to do so devolves to the states. </IANAL>