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I'm not sure I understand how I "prove your point".

Why are "victims of communism" allowed to generalize from their experience, while "victims of capitalism" are not?

I never called myself a victim, and neither you are one. I know how places like China work, and it was you who asked me how do I know it.

Because "communism" is both an economic and a political ideology, while "capitalism" is only an economic one.

And before the nitpicking starts, I'm well aware that monied interests can influence democratic politics. That does not make an economic system a political system. It would be like calling democracy an economic system.

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