The “432 Hz vs. 440 Hz” conspiracy theory
jakubmarian.com
jakubmarian.com
Another good one is Paul Davids: The Ultimate 432Hz VS 440Hz | CONSPIRACY + Comparison https://youtu.be/Rt3EAPDn-Ug
Did they know that the time that they had chosen exactly 435 Hz? That is, were they to directly count the number of waves per second using the technology available at that time?
My quick searching says that devices such as "Scheibler's Tonometer" did exist at the time. These allowed the user count the much slower "beats" between two tuning forks, letting them extrapolate the frequency of a unknown tuning fork from a known. But what did they use for a known?
Or was the French standard only actually defined as a particular tuning fork, only determined to be 435 Hz at some late time, when better technology was available?
That's absurd.
It's more likely Goebbels did that to demonstrate that Germany was no longer bound to Article 282 (22) of the Treaty of Versailles, which forced it to accept the 435hz standard.
See: Jerry L. Weinstein, Musical Pitch and International Agreement. The American Journal of International Law Vol. 46, No. 2 (Apr., 1952), pp. 341-343, https://www.jstor.org/stable/2194075
http://www.jneurosci.org/content/37/42/10173
Personally, I would prefer that seconds were slightly shorter (~.84 seconds), because then we could have decimal time, where there are 100 seconds in a minute, 100 minutes in an hour and 10 hours in a day. Mm, would be soo satisfying. Useless, but satisfying.
Yes, as with anything that lies beyond the clause “well technically...” this actually kind of vindicates the opposing campus point, so yeah...
Thankfully, this article isn't so much about debunking the exact myth, but rather the notion that the standard has any particular historical significance. It is interesting to think that it wasn't until recently we have even been able to reasonably measure and standardise frequency.