I think it is interesting how words got their gender established as part of their etymology. It baffled me when learing german that every other word had it different and it's important for grammar.
I think it is interesting how words got their gender established as part of their etymology. It baffled me when learing german that every other word had it different and it's important for grammar.
Nope, just a historical linguistics enthusiast, like a few others around here.
> I have no idea what other language would have "language" as feminine =).
Quite a few languages' words for language is grammatically "feminine", OTTOMH:
Arabic: "lugha(t)"
Sanskrit: "bhaashaa"
But grammatical gender of words without obvious gender associations shouldn't be interpreted in the biological sense of gender.
For example, there are languages whose "gender" system is actually more transparent, representing dichotomies like "animate" vs "inanimate", or "rational" (an entity capable of reason) vs "irrational".
Calling this phenomenon "gender" reflects a historical bias from the study of traditional Indo European and Semitic languages, which repurpose biological gender for grammatical gender, but it should really be called "noun classification" or something similar.
tongue (can mean language as well): a língua portuguesa, la lengua española.
language is different, Portuguese is feminine, and Spanish is masculine: a linguaguem de programação, el lenguaje de programación.
idiom is masculine in both: o idioma português, el idioma español.
While learning the language I've noted that in Portuguese words ending in ~gem are generally feminine regardless of their gender in French:
un garage -> uma garagem
un langage -> uma linguagem
un abordage -> uma abordagem
un bagage -> uma bagagem
And many, many others. My point is that I'm guessing that the diference in gender here is purely morphological and not tied to the meaning of the word and whether it's semantically tied to masculine or feminine traits (I'm sure you already knew all of that but I also know that English speakers often have misconceptions regarding how genders work in Romance languages, so I thought I'd clear it up).
I have misconceptions about other Romance languages as well. I often confuse genders when trying to speak French, last week I learned moustache is feminine, while in Portuguese and Spanish it's masculine.
When the transition from 3 gender to 2 happened, neuter words had to be "assigned" to one gender or another. Sometimes this was just arbitrary, other times conditioned by phonology or semantics.
The same phenomenon occurred when Sanskrit's 3 gender system gave way to the dual gender system of the new-Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi. In that case, most neuter words became masculine because they were often already phonologically similar to masculine words in the accusative case.
In spanish and english there are a version masculine (El lenguaje / The language) and other feminine (La lengua / The tongue) with subtle differences in meaning but equivalent basically. The feminine term is polysemic.
It seems that French use only the second version, in a polysemic sense also.
We only use "langue" for natural (for lack of a better word) languages. Programming languages are always "langages de programmation". I believe that the usage is strictly the same in English (you wouldn't lay "a programming tongue" either).