Well, we could go back and forth with "no they didn't" and "yes they did". Let's throw in some citations. You're in a hard place, because proving a negative is tricky. So I think it's incumbent on me to provide some examples.
Let me start by throwing out a little bit of terminology just to make it clear if we're on the same page. Loans have existed since money existed. The only difference between a private loan and fractional reserve banking is that the lender is a) lending someone else's money and b) allowing depositors to withdraw money despite the fact that the sum of all depositor's money is not physically possessed by the bank.
Wikipedia's page [1] is a reasonable place to start. The Babylonians were issuing loans in gold. The Greek and Egyptians were issuing loans in gold. The Romans were issuing loans in gold. None of these (except the Egyptians, with their seed grain short-term currencies) were issuing any sort of derivative currency or notes.
Throughout medieval times, letters of credit were frequently used as a form of correspondence banking [2] for travelers. The lack of high-speed communication meant that the settlement and clearing of loans could take months or years, but the depositors (correspondent banks in foreign countries) were unlikely to make any immediate claims on their deposits except through such letters. The letters could be redeemed, usually, directly for gold. You can argue whether this constitutes fractional reserve banking; it's in some ways closer to what we would now call "corporate paper"; very short-term credit extended to very high trust individuals or institutions.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_banking#Earliest_fo...
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Merchant_bank