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Question for those in the know: is a non-compete valid if you signed the template, but the company never got it back to you signed on their end?

In other words, your signature is on it, but you've never seen their signature on it.

(Company State = Texas... and I don't reside in Texas)

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Law student (non-USA) here.

The general contract law principle is: if both parties have signed a contract, it is legally valid. Whether copies are possessed by only one party or both is inconsequential.

Exceptions are if the contract contains language mandating that both parties should receive a copy, or if there are specific laws regulating the form of such contracts.

Idk if it's valid or not - I would assume yes - but as a piece of advice: do not sign any copy that hasn't been signed by the other party first.

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