I don’t have the background knowledge to properly understand the math in that paper. But I do know that you can’t simply set bounds
a priori on how much a probability can change after additional information has been gathered; no matter how pathological the swings, you can design a system, and a series of observations of that system, that would make all the forecasts (i.e. conditional probabilities) correct. Thus the paper must be making additional assumptions. As far as I can tell, those include at least that the electoral process can be modeled as Brownian motion, which is a martingale, but is not the only type of martingale; in particular, I’d expect random motion to be a good model of typical polling drift, but a poor model of sudden polling swings caused by news events (which in reality are a large change caused by a single random event, not the sum of a series of small changes caused by independent events that just happen to mostly point in the same direction). I am not sure whether the assumptions also include an estimated value of `s` or volatility; the paper doesn’t seem to explain how it’s calculated, but maybe it can be derived from the raw polling results plus the assumption of Brownian motion? In any case, the paper says nothing explicitly about what data was used to produce the “rigorous updating” graph. I’d love if someone could explain this to me…
Subjectively, it’s hard for me to believe that an unbiased forecast would truly be so utterly noncommittal until just before Election Day, or indeed that there’s enough data to answer that question, especially seemingly from just one election result. But my subjective impressions, of course, could be utterly wrong. I’m very curious whether or not this is the case.