There was a concept of a united India/Hindustan/Bharat/Aryavart in Ancient times.
There was a concept of a united India/Hindustan/Bharat/Aryavart in Ancient times.
The Marathas never controlled an "undivided India" given the extent of their empire at it's peak: https://www.mapsofindia.com/history/maratha-empire.html
Not to mention, even Akbar did not have the North east and the southernmost parts of India.
The rise of the Sikh empire, and the Deccan sultanate also limited the extent of the later Mughal and Maratha kingdoms.
I did not question that these empires had their time. But the notion of undivided India as united as one under the Mughals at the time right before the British arrived is wrong. Ancient times do not affect contemporary affairs, or in this case affairs of 1750s are not affected by the Maurya dynasty's claim on some version of modern day India/Pakistan/Bangladesh.
Video: https://youtu.be/QN41DJLQmPk?t=628 (at 10:28).
Some other interesting time lines from a union of India perspective from this video:
Maurya Empire: 270 BCE (at 2:01, https://youtu.be/QN41DJLQmPk?t=122)
Delhi Sultanate: 1344 (at 8:44 https://youtu.be/QN41DJLQmPk?t=524)
Edit: Found another video that matches with the above video regarding Mughal Empire: https://youtu.be/wYu2jyVTSc8?t=76 (at 1:16).
The peaks were quite short-lived, often only one ruler's lifespan (natural or otherwise). There were long gaps between. There were many competing powers.
And that's OK! I mean, are we sure that the world in which some Aurangzeb figure won, and created a united (persian-speaking, 100% sunni) subcontinent, is a better place?