Is the law similar in the UK?
Does it even exist for currencies? Presumably not because there is no company to be the insider of?
Is the law similar in the UK?
Does it even exist for currencies? Presumably not because there is no company to be the insider of?
No, this isn't how it's defined in the US. It's completely legal to trade on material non-public information that you collect on your own via research (e.g. satellites looking at retail parking lots).
In the US, it's only illegal if you use information to trade that violates a fiduciary duty (e.g. using non-public information from a CEO).
I thought there was one theory that owning the stock makes one an insider because you are an owner.
I find people worried and thinking about this all over the web:
https://www.ibtimes.com/should-hedge-funds-be-concerned-abou...
In the example where a hedge fund buys information from Best Buy about how many Panasonic TVs they sell, Best Buy may have a duty to Panasonic, and thus are an insider in that context, so if the hedge fund buys that data from Best Buy, they could potentially be trading on insider information.
It's not because they own the stock.
There are serious questions about whether that, under US law, would be considered insider trading as it appears to be just that.
Simply owning a single share of stock in a company does not make one an insider. An insider, in the US, is someone who either works for the company, owns more than 10% of a company or has some other kind of fiduciary duty to the company. Insider trading can include anyone trading on any information from insiders even if they themselves aren't.
Mind, this is different in other countries.
For a more thorough examination, see a recent Matt Levine piece about someone being charged for insider trading after overhearing material non-public information in a public place:
https://www.bloomberg.com/opinion/articles/2018-12-03/inside...
In the Brexit case, there couldn't be an insider issue as the polling companies aren't inside anything relevant.
The grey area here is solely due to the law that says that exit polls can't be made public before the polls close. That is separate from insider laws but does relate to a question about what does "public" mean in that law.
In principle you might fall foul of insider trading if you had privileged information from the BofE, say, that they were going to make an unexpected rate move before it was announced. Similarly, if someone on Theresa May's staff bet against the pound on Sunday night, there may be a case as killing the vote on Monday was sure to trash Sterling.
But it's only really applied against someone who uses proprietary information that they gained by dint of their position or contact with someone in a privileged position.
As with all laws like this, it's worded pretty vaguely so that the Court can use discretion.
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/i/insider.asp
Insider is a term describing a director or senior officer of a company, as well as any person or entity that beneficially owns more than 10% of a company's voting shares. For purposes of insider trading, the definition is expanded to include anyone who trades a company's shares based on material nonpublic knowledge. Insiders have to comply with strict disclosure requirements with regard to the sale or purchase of the shares of their company.
Note the strategic placement of "anyone"
Here's Matt Levine again thinking about what insider trading even is and what constitutes privileged information:
https://www.bloomberg.com/opinion/articles/2018-10-15/inside...