This is not right. The EU only outlaws monopolies which do illegal things, just like the US:

"Any abuse by one or more undertakings of a dominant position ... shall be prohibited...."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Article_102_of_the_Treaty_on_t...

There is a difference in terms of how you go about proving "abuse," but it's a difference of degree, not of kind; in the US, there is more weight placed on "effects" analysis where you see if you can prove something bad actually happened, while in the EU it is often sufficient to show that the actions are the kind that are likely to result in bad things. But this is a generalization and both kinds of proof are considered in both places.