I suppose if one holds the view that men and women are mentally identical on average, it would lead one to the conclusion that the gender disparity in diagnosis rates is due to social factors (or some kind of medical discrimination).
I suppose if one holds the view that men and women are mentally identical on average, it would lead one to the conclusion that the gender disparity in diagnosis rates is due to social factors (or some kind of medical discrimination).
We know ASD has a strong genetic component, so combining these results in another hypothesis for the higher prevalence of ASD in males, namely that it is affected by the X-Y chromosome dichotomy.
This isn't just a hypothesis, it's a well-documented fact. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sex_linkage for more info.
If you consider the low prevalence, most people don't even know anyone with the different behaviors grouped under Asperger syndrome.
(lots more people have social problems from depression and anxiety than autism spectrum disorders...)
[1] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5286449/
[2] https://www.cambridge.org/core/services/aop-cambridge-core/c...
[3] http://psycnet.apa.org/record/1995-97924-000
[4] https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10803-007-0441-x
The whole "people must assume that there is everything exactly the same and only differences are social" is strawman.
Also, it is possible to have lower rates and simultaneously have those underdiagnozed.
It might be easier to think about this on a different level of granularity. The problem has a self referential issue (requires social to evaluate social) if discrimination is the largest factor considered. Aggregate social factors over time yield discrimination - can't be corrected if the solution defines the problem.