It is correlational, yes, but it's consistent with what we expect (surely no one expects ads to have zero or even positive effects on Internet usage?), the direction & size of the effect are consistent with the 2 most relevant randomized experiments (linked in my comment), and they have longitudinal data which lets them control for a decent number of baseline characteristics like, to quote from the propensity scoring section:
- Active hours: Total time the user spent interacting with the browser
- Session length: Total browser session time
- Number of subsessions: Total Telemetry reports
- Total tab open events: Number of tabs opened
- Total URI count: Total number of pages loaded
- Unique URI count: Number of unique websites (TLD+1) visited
- Address bar searches: Number of searches initiated from the address bar
- Search bar searches: Number of searches initiated from the dedicated search bar
- Total Yahoo searches: Number of searches made using the Yahoo search engine
- Total Google searches: Number of searches made using the Google search engine
- Total searches: Total number of searches overall initiated from one of the Firefox search bars
- Number of bookmarks: Total bookmarks added
- Length of history: Total number of pages visited
So everyone with an adblocker had normal activity levels at the start (compared to the non-adblock-user they are 'matched' with by the propensity scoring), but after installation, then the adblocker people saw large increases in activity that their non-adblock counterparts, who were web browsing just as much before hand, did not experience.
This largely rules out the reverse causation of 'browsing -> adblock installation'. It could still be driven by people forecasting that they will be doing a lot of web browsing in the future and installing adblock before they begin doing all the extra browsing, but this feels a lot less plausible to me.