Hurricane Maria Killed as Many American Citizens as 9/11 Did
warisboring.com
warisboring.com
Assuming that nobody thought to mention this or take a deep breath and think while mobilising the army is only barely plausible to me. It seems much more likely that the absolute damage done was never an issue, and hence it isn't a powerful comparison. There are so many things worse than 9/11, including even _the immediate response to_ 9/11, that the raw damage just isn't important.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/War_in_Afghanistan_(2001%E2%80...
The comparison is not meant to argue that one event was worse than the other, but to put into perspective how much damage has been done and and how are we addressing the damage. Why were/are we willing to indefinitely spend $50 billion a year to kill thousands of Afghani civilians, yet are unwilling to spend $50 billion over four years to repair the damage caused and be better prepared for future hurricanes.
There are a few obvious reasons why the response was much less: (1) Natural disasters are more common, more expected, and less psychologically dramatic than terrorist attacks. (2) Americans intuitively view Puerto Ricans as foreigners regardless of whether they legally have US citizenship. (Due to different culture, language and religion)
When the first amendment was written, the press was quite rudimentary by today’s standards. TV, radio, and internet were not envisioned. Maybe the government is allowed to regulate all news that isn’t physical printed. Also, it should be able to ban automatic printing presses. The printing presses of the timer were manual, one press one page. Nowadays the printing presses can spew thousands of pages with a single press of a button.
It isn't ridiculous to question whether eighteenth century political and cultural standards should always apply to a 21st century state. The Constitution isn't holy writ. Somehow much of the rest of the world manages to have free, democratic states without a 2nd Amendment or its thesis that a free state requires an armed and violent populace and a lack of any regulation on firearms.
The appeal to the text and original meaning of the Constitution is not about giving deference to 18th century attitudes over 21st century ones, it’s about resolving a dispute amongst two contemporary views. If everyone agreed that the framers were out to lunch on the 2A, it would be trivial to change it. But people don’t agree that the 2A is obsolete.
If you saw the word “arms” in a contract, would you think it was limited to a particular type of gun. If someone sells just automatic weapons, are they not an “arms dealer?” Like in a contract, if both sides agreed to change the word “arms” to something narrower, they could do it. But just like a contract, where the sides don’t agree, one is entitled to have the contract enforced as written.
Where in the Constitution does it say that?
Because if it doesn't, then the entitlement you're describing doesn't exist as far as it's concerned.
Courts change the followed interpretation of law all the time without amending the written law.
Often the written law only gets amended when the difference between the definition on paper and the definition in common practice can no longer be bent any further, after decades of plain conflict in language.
They should not do that either. That’s an usurpation of the legislature’s powers and an affront to democracy.
However I am not sure how that would even work, given the law is in language and language must be interpreted to elucidate meaning from it in the first place. Even if you fixed the first interpretation as sacrosanct, you would then have to interpret that interpretation each time.
But note, at the time of the founding, it was perfectly legal for private citizens to own armed warships. These ships had dozens of cannons that could fire over a mile (thus sieging a city). Canons moreover could fire grapeshot, causing massive casualties to groups of people. These weapons were far more destructive than an AR-15.
Not your own one. Jefferson did get his wish granted in some ways however. Possibly by a malignant genie with a keen sense of irony.
Ok, first off, Fort Bragg is in North Carolina.
Secondly, the 82nd Airborne Division's job was/is to be ready to deploy halfway around the world on a moments (OK, two hours) notice and I can say that we weren't ready to do much of anything once we landed in Saudi Arabia other than be "speed bumps in the sand". Also, as was seen in Haiti (I believe), it isn't such a good idea to send combat troops off on missions like this since they are war makers and not peace keepers -- bad things happen because up to that point you are trained to fight the enemy and not much else.
So, yeah, they could've had the 82nd on the ground pretty quickly but doing so wouldn't have been a very good idea unless the Cubans were invading or something.
At the same time I think the death toll of 9/11 is unfortunately much higher as an alarmingly big number of first responders were diagnosed with cancer and many of them died already.
* terrorists can be viewed psychopats, but let's leave that question open, since it is more military than civil.
>Does history record any case of terrorism scaling up?
Do you mean that if after first acts of terror no one would bring up a defense against it, then there would be no more acts than it is? By "first" I mean the time since our world got good enough life to see it as outstanding event -- burning village was obviously a regular thing at earlier periods.
One analyst ascribed an additional 1595 deaths to 9/11 because of increased car traffic in the year after 9/11. So, the numerical comparison does not result in such a close match.
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2011/sep/05/september-11-r...
By comparison some people had heath issues directly caused by 9/11 and you could reasonably add those deaths to the 9/11 death toll.
If they were actually trying for high figures, as you suggest, why not go with the Harvard study placing it at around 4600 dead?
Terrorists blow up a target and "people's responses" are going to be an attempt to flee the damage. Some of them will be hurt or killed doing so. Is that not ascribable to the terrorist attack itself? It seems arbitrary to exclude that.
e.g. if someone in the period before a hurricane decides not to evacuate and that person dies, we still ascribe their death to the hurricane.
The fact that people decide to rely on other, historically less safe, modes of transportation after an attack on airliners is somewhat predictable. Can we really write that additional risk off as "people's responses" and not part of the intention of the attack?
Someone not flying six months later because of something they saw on TV is filtered through a long chain of other people. It’s hardly the saw thing.