Logical Literacy
matt.might.net
matt.might.net
Failure to understand this logic might be part of the reason there's so much magical thinking about things relating to pseudoscience (e.g. paranormal activity, UFOs, conspiracy theories, New Age anything). A stronger base in logic would help people understand exactly why these things are impossible, stupid, or plain crazy with simple deductive and inductive reasoning techniques taught in logic courses.
Logic: to see how to reason deductively.
Epistemology and/or philosophy of science: to see why common meta-beliefs about knowledge and discovery are wrong.
Direct exposure to either a scientific or logic-driven discipline of study or practice: doesn't matter too much if this is a history book or the demands of a compiler. You have to put the reasoning in practice.
Developing a high-quality bullshit detector relies on much more than just an introduction to logic textbook. It is a bit like immunization: you have to encounter bad reasoning in a safe environment and build up your own defenses. (That's all IMHO of course.)
In late elementary and junior high school I recall getting in trouble for being ahead of the class, particularly in computer-related classes and assignments. A faster pace would've allowed students like me to benefit from the class, but may have left slower students behind.
In any case, even if the teachers are making the right move by going slowly, that doesn't change the fact that teaching yourself using the internet is awesome for the justification that I gave.
> Many understand implication intuitively, yet find its symbolic formulation puzzling.
Yes, and for a reason: material implication (the kind of implication discussed in the article) cannot always explain our intuitive sense of implication. My favourite example, from Priest's Introduction to Non-Classical Logic: (A ⇒ B) ∧ (C ⇒ D) ⊦ (A ⇒ D) ∨ (C ⇒ B) is valid when ⇒ is material, yet the statement:
"If John is in Paris he is in France, and if John is in London he is in England. Hence, it is the case either that if John is in Paris he is in England, or that if he is in London he is in France."
makes no intuitive sense. It is very important to discard intuition when dealing with implication in mathematics -- this is why although I'm a big fan of using English connectives instead of symbolic ones, I try to not use the English "if" and "then" in proofs.
For something that seems so "common sense," the meaning of implication is difficult to grasp.
I wondered whether I should spend some time discussing the differences between material and logical implication.
In the end, I decided that was just too much for a short overview on the basics.
Intuitionistic logic has the pleasing property that whenever G |- P \/ Q is provable, then either G |- P is provable or G |- Q is provable.
I think this gets to the heart of what is confusing about this example: (London -> England) /\ (Paris -> France) |- (London -> France) \/ (Paris -> England) is classically valid, even though neither (London -> England) /\ (Paris -> France) |- (London -> France) nor (London -> England) /\ (Paris -> France) |- (Paris -> England) is
That may cost the author some of the readers for whom this text is the most educational, i.e. the ones that have trouble grasping the logic.
Will fix. ;)
It's like the source code and comments being out of sync - you don't know which one is wrong.
I fixed the broken theorem, and I added a blurb on the "universe of discourse."
The English terms we use to talk about logic could be considered similar to UI. But I don't think that using the word "if" (instead of making up a new word like "garply") was obviously the wrong design decision for the inventors of English logical terminology. "If" is the word in the English language that most closely maps to the concept the terminology designers wanted to describe.
More precisely, it is a model for human thought. The way logic is similar to UI is that logic's philosophical success is a function of how well human thought maps to it and how intuitive theorems in the logic are, just as UI's success is a function of how intuitive it is. The last hundred years of discourse on philosophical logic have been focused on one thing -- to formalize the human notion of implication better than material implication does. That's why logicians came up with non-classical logics of the modal, counterfactual (which captures the very intuitive notion of mutatis mutandis), fuzzy and intuitionistic varieties.
I think it should be possible to do so. As long as you don't need the law of the excluded middle you should be fine.
> Maybe different logics are like different building materials, each with their own advantages and disadvantages.
I see where you're coming from, but I think logic is more than just a tool.