> We know this is possible, because the USA used to have it in living memory.
If you look back at your history, you'll see that this only applied to the already wealthy part of the US for the most part, and for the most part the white people only.
If you look back at your history, you'll see that this only applied to the already wealthy part of the US for the most part, and for the most part the white people only.
This happy state of affairs was during the adulthood of the generation that grew up during the depression. The vast majority of the US population was poor, including those living in the cities.
> for the most part the white people only.
The USA was something like 95% white at the time, so how is this a helpful contribution to the conversation?
Is it really so hard to do simple research? In 1945 African-Americans were 10% of the population vs the current 12.6%.