I don’t believe that you could, even theoretically, produce the data from a loophole-free Bell test without invoking superdeterminism, superluminality, or quantum entanglement.
Can you describe how this would be theoretically possible?
And yet, with relativistic particles, the wild claims are made that splitting photons through a substrate, and then passing them through the wall of a polarizing lens, means we can declare ourselves capable of rewriting and erasing history. Eh, not quite.
But hey, where there's smoke, there's fire, so something must be true, right? Let's just make up whatever.
2. If so, do you think a non-flawed Bell test experiment could be done?
3. If so, do you have a definite opinion about whether or not it would yield a Bell inequality violation?
4. If so, would it yield a Bell inequality violation or not.
5. If you think all Bell test experiments ever done were flawed, can you pick one, preferably one commonly considered a good one, and point out what exactly you think the flaw in the experiment is?
6. If you think Bell inequality violations are or could be real, how do you want to explain them?
Note that those are all yes no questions, well, at least all but the last two. I don't need and want more than a yes or no for the first four because from your comments alone it is not clear, at least to me, what your position actually is.